The nurse is caring for a client who has a continuous bladder irrigation (CBI) infusing. At the end of the shift, the nurse calculates the urine output. The client received a total of 2700 mL of the irrigation and emptied a total of 3375 ml from the urine catheter. What should the nurse record as the client's true urine output?
-625 mL
+675 mL
+375 mL
-300 mL
The Correct Answer is B
A. A negative output would imply that the client has produced less urine than the irrigation received, which is not the case here.
B. The true urine output is 675 mL, calculated by subtracting the irrigation amount from the total urine collected.
C. The calculation does not support this value, as it does not accurately reflect the total urine output after accounting for the irrigation.
D. Similar to option A, a negative value does not apply here since the urine output exceeds the irrigation amount.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. This value is within the normal range for adult males (14-17.3 g/dL) and borderline for females (11.7- 15.5 g/dL). While the specific context of the patient (e.g., gender) matters, generally, a hemoglobin level of 14 g/dL would not typically cause concern.
B. A platelet count of 150,000/mm³ is at the lower limit of normal (150,000-450,000/mm³). While this may be concerning in certain clinical contexts, it is still within the acceptable range and would not typically raise alarm for a post-op nephrectomy patient unless there are other indications of bleeding or clotting issues.
C. This white blood cell count is elevated (normal range is 4.5-11.1 x 10³/mm³). An elevated WBC count can indicate an infection, inflammation, or a response to surgery, which is particularly concerning post- operatively. This result would warrant further investigation to rule out infection, which is critical for recovery.
D. The neutrophil percentage of 59% is within the normal range (typically around 40-70% for total WBCs). While it is slightly elevated, it is not concerning on its own without additional context, especially since it may be elevated in response to surgery or stress.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. 1500 is 8 hours after 0700, which is too long for the remaining fluid to last.
B. 1200 is 5 hours after 0700, which means there would still be fluid left in the bag at this time.
C. 1100 is exactly 4 hours after 0700, which aligns with our calculation of when the remaining 500 mL will be finished.
D. 0200 is 19 hours after 0700, which is far too late for the IV fluid to last.
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