Two days after being admitted with alcohol withdrawal, a client has constant liquid stools and abdominal cramping. The emesis and stool are hemoccult positive. The client is confused and refusing to take oral medication. Which action should the nurse implement first?
Administer an antianxiolytic medication.
Insert fecal management tube.
Insert peripheral intravenous catheter.
Crush pills and place in applesauce.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale: Administering an antianxiolytic medication may be appropriate, but addressing the client's fluid and electrolyte imbalance is the priority.
Choice B rationale: Inserting a fecal management tube is not the first action to take in response to hemoccult positive liquid stools; addressing fluid balance is more urgent.
Choice C rationale: Inserting a peripheral intravenous catheter is the priority to address the client's fluid and electrolyte imbalance and provide necessary hydration and medications.
Choice D rationale: Crushing pills and placing them in applesauce may be considered, but the client's fluid and electrolyte imbalance needs prompt attention first.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Asking about a bad experience may provide additional information, but it does not directly address the behavioral aspect of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD).
Choice B rationale: This response shows empathy and curiosity and invites the client to explore their cognitive processes behind their compulsive behavior. The nurse can help the client identify and challenge their irrational or distorted thoughts that fuel their anxiety and drive them to check the locks repeatedly.
Choice C rationale: Acknowledging that repeating the same behavior helps diminish anxiety might reinforce the client's belief that checking the locks is necessary and beneficial, which could prevent them from seeking alternative coping strategies.
Choice D rationale: Stating that feelings of being driven are related to anxiety is a general observation and may not contribute to a deeper understanding of the client's experience with OCD.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Documenting the finding on the Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS) is appropriate. The AIMS is a standardized tool used to assess and document abnormal movements associated with antipsychotic medications, such as tardive dyskinesia.
Choice B rationale: Assisting the client in recognizing her manifestations of anxiety is unrelated to the observed foot tapping and does not address the potential side effects of antipsychotic medication.
Choice C rationale: Preparing to initiate seizure precautions for the client's safety is not indicated based on the observed foot tapping. Seizure precautions are not typically associated with antipsychotic medication side effects.
Choice D rationale: Advising the client that she has developed tolerance to the medication is speculative and not supported by the information provided. The observed foot tapping may be indicative of extrapyramidal side effects rather than tolerance.
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