The practical nurse (PN) is reviewing a client's recent ophthalmic screening test results. Findings of optic neuropathy, loss of peripheral vision, and increased intraocular pressure are consistent with which medical condition?
Glaucoma
Macular edema.
Cataract
Diabetic retinopathy
The Correct Answer is A
Glaucoma is a group of eye diseases that damage the optic nerve and cause vision loss. It is often associated with increased intraocular pressure, which can compress the nerve fibers and reduce blood flow to the retina. The most common type of glaucoma, open-angle glaucoma, causes gradual loss of peripheral vision.
The other options are not correct because:
- Macular edema is a condition that causes swelling and fluid accumulation in the macula, the central part of the retina that is responsible for sharp and detailed vision. It can cause blurred or distorted vision, but it does not affect the optic nerve or the peripheral vision.
- Cataract is a condition that causes clouding of the lens, which is the transparent structure that focuses light onto the retina. It can cause blurred, dim, or yellowed vision, but it does not affect the optic nerve or the intraocular pressure.
- Diabetic retinopathy is a complication of diabetes that damages the blood vessels in the retina and causes bleeding, leakage, or scarring. It can cause blurred, fluctuating, or darkened vision, but it does not affect the optic nerve or the intraocular pressure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is C. Oriented to person only.
Choice A rationale:
A blood pressure of 144/84 mmHg is slightly elevated but not critically high. While it is important to monitor, it does not immediately impact the instructions for morning care.
Choice B rationale:
An oxygen saturation measurement of 95 to 96% is within the normal range and indicates adequate oxygenation. This is important to monitor but does not require specific changes to morning care instructions.
Choice C rationale:
Being oriented to person only indicates a significant alteration in the client’s cognitive status, which is crucial for the UAP to be aware of. This affects the client’s ability to understand and follow instructions, and may require additional supervision and safety measures during care.
Choice D rationale:
A urinary output of 50 mL/hour is within the normal range (typically 30-50 mL/hour is considered adequate). While it is important to monitor, it does not necessitate immediate changes to morning care instructions.
: 1
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
d. Escort the client to a calm and quiet place.
The PN should use a calm and firm approach to de-escalate the situation and remove the client from the stressful environment. This can help prevent further agitation and potential violence.
The other options are not correct because:
- Instructing a UAP to stay with the client may not be effective or safe, as the UAP may not have the skills or training to handle an agitated client.
- Notifying the client's healthcare provider is not a priority action, as it does not address the immediate safety of the client and others.
- Administering a PRN medication for agitation may be indicated, but it is not the first action. The PN should try non- pharmacological interventions first, unless there is an imminent risk of harm.
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