A client who had orthopedic surgery three days ago verbalizes difficulty in sleeping. Which initial intervention is best for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?
Offer the client a prescribed sleep medication.
Reposition the client and provide a back rub.
Administer an as needed (PRN) prescription for pain.
Provide a cup of hot chocolate at bedtime.
The Correct Answer is B
This is the best initial intervention for the PN to implement because it promotes comfort, relaxation, and circulation for the client. A back rub can also reduce anxiety and muscle tension, which can interfere with sleep. The PN should use non-pharmacological methods to facilitate sleep before resorting to medication.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Incorrect- This response might address the client's concern but doesn't directly address her dichotomous thinking or provide immediate therapeutic communication.
B) Incorrect- While showing happiness for the client's improvement is positive, this response does not address the client's behavior or engage with her dichotomous tendency.
C) Incorrect- This response acknowledges the client's liking but doesn't address the dichotomous thinking pattern or provide an effective therapeutic response.
D) Correct- answering this question encourages the client to express her concerns and perceptions, fostering communication. This approach acknowledges the client's feelings and provides an opportunity for her to discuss the issue, potentially leading to a productive conversation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Incorrect - The APTT value being two times the control value indicates that the client's anticoagulation is within the therapeutic range. There is no need to increase the warfarin dose.
B) Correct - With the APTT value within the target range and the PT and INR values also normal, the nurse should continue the same dose of warfarin and withhold the heparin.
C) Incorrect - Decreasing the heparin dose is not indicated, as the client's APTT is already within the therapeutic range.
D) Incorrect - Increasing the heparin dose and decreasing the warfarin dose is not necessary, as the client's anticoagulation levels are appropriate.
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