A client who had orthopedic surgery three days ago verbalizes difficulty in sleeping. Which initial intervention is best for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?
Offer the client a prescribed sleep medication.
Reposition the client and provide a back rub.
Administer an as needed (PRN) prescription for pain.
Provide a cup of hot chocolate at bedtime.
The Correct Answer is B
This is the best initial intervention for the PN to implement because it promotes comfort, relaxation, and circulation for the client. A back rub can also reduce anxiety and muscle tension, which can interfere with sleep. The PN should use non-pharmacological methods to facilitate sleep before resorting to medication.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Correct - Acute dystonic reactions are involuntary muscle spasms caused by certain medications, including antipsychotic drugs. These reactions can sometimes affect the muscles of the face and neck, including the larynx. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat acute dystonic reactions. It works by blocking certain neurotransmitters that contribute to muscle spasms, helping to relieve the symptoms.
B) Incorrect - Divalproex is an anticonvulsant medication primarily used to treat epilepsy and bipolar disorder. It is not the appropriate treatment for acute dystonic reactions. These reactions are usually caused by certain antipsychotic medications and are characterized by sudden and involuntary muscle contractions. Divalproex does not have the specific mechanism of action needed to alleviate the symptoms of acute dystonic reactions.
C) Incorrect - Isotonic crystalloid fluids are used for various purposes, such as fluid resuscitation, maintaining hydration, and balancing electrolytes. However, they are not a treatment for acute dystonic reactions. These reactions are neurological and musculoskeletal in nature and require medications with specific anticholinergic properties, like benztropine, to address the underlying issue.
D) Incorrect - Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for anxiety, sedation, and seizure control. While it can have a relaxing effect on muscles, it is not the first-line treatment for acute dystonic reactions. Anticholinergic medications like benztropine are more appropriate because they directly counteract the neurotransmitter imbalances that lead to muscle spasms in these reactions.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This is the group of children that the PN should screen for scoliosis because they are at the highest risk of developing this condition. Scoliosis is a lateral curvature of the spine that usually occurs during the growth spurt before puberty. Girls are more likely than boys to have scoliosis, and the condition tends to worsen during adolescence.

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