The nurse is caring for a client who works night shift from 22:00 to 06:00 and normally sleeps from 08:00 (8 AM) until 16:00 (4 PM) each day.
The nurse should teach this client to take the prescribed corticosteroid at what time of the day?
08:00.
22:00.
06:00.
16:00.
The Correct Answer is C
This is because cortisol exhibits a proper 24-h circadian rhythm that affects the cardiovascular system and other organs. Cortisol levels are normally low at the beginning of sleep and high at the moment of awakening. Taking corticosteroids at this time mimics the natural cortisol rhythm and may reduce side effects such as adrenal suppression, sleep disturbances and cardiovascular complications.
Choice A is wrong because taking corticosteroids at 08:00 may not coincide with the client’s natural cortisol peak and may cause insomnia or unpleasant dreams.
Choice B is wrong because taking corticosteroids at 22:00 may disrupt the client’s sleep quality and increase the risk of nocturnal hypertension.
Choice D is wrong because taking corticosteroids at 16:00 may interfere with the client’s natural cortisol decline and cause hyperglycemia or dyslipidemia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is because cortisol exhibits a proper 24-h circadian rhythm that affects the cardiovascular system and other organs. Cortisol levels are normally low at the beginning of sleep and high at the moment of awakening. Taking corticosteroids at this time mimics the natural cortisol rhythm and may reduce side effects such as adrenal suppression, sleep disturbances and cardiovascular complications.
Choice A is wrong because taking corticosteroids at 08:00 may not coincide with the client’s natural cortisol peak and may cause insomnia or unpleasant dreams.
Choice B is wrong because taking corticosteroids at 22:00 may disrupt the client’s sleep quality and increase the risk of nocturnal hypertension.
Choice D is wrong because taking corticosteroids at 16:00 may interfere with the client’s natural cortisol decline and cause hyperglycemia or dyslipidemia.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Tolbutamide is preferred for clients with renal dysfunction, who may not be able to excrete chlorpropamide, because it is more easily cleared from the body.
Choice B. Tolazamide is wrong because it is a first-generation sulfonylurea that is used less frequently and is usually tried after tolbutamide and chlorpropamide have been shown to be ineffective.
Choice C. Chlorpropamide is wrong because it is a first-generation sulfonylurea that may accumulate in clients with renal dysfunction and cause hypoglycemia.
Choice D. Chlorpromazine is wrong because it is an antipsychotic agent, not an oral antidiabetic agent.
First-generation sulfonylureas are oral antidiabetic agents that stimulate insulin secretion from the pancreas.
They are used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus.
The normal range of blood glucose level is 70 to 110 mg/dL.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.