The nurse in the women's health clinic has four patients who are waiting to be seen. Which patient should the nurse see first?

A 42-yr-old patient with secondary amenorrhea who says that her last menstrual cycle was 3 months ago

A 19-yr-old patient with menorrhagia who has been using superabsorbent tampons and has fever with weakness

A 22-yr-old patient with persistent red-brown vaginal drainage 3 days after having balloon thermotherapy

A 35-yr-old patient with heavy spotting after having a progestin-containing IUD (Mirena) inserted a month ago

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale: The 42-yr-old patient with secondary amenorrhea may have menopause, pregnancy, or a hormonal disorder. This is less urgent compared to the 19- year old patient.

Choice B rationale: This patient may have toxic shock syndrome, which is a life- threatening complication of tampon use that can cause organ failure and shock. The nurse should assess the patient's vital signs, remove the tampon, and initiate fluid resuscitation and antibiotic therapy.

Choice C rationale: This patient may have an infection or a complication of the balloon thermotherapy, which is a procedure to destroy the endometrial lining of the uterus and is not an emergency compared to the 19 year old.

Choice D rationale: This patient may have a displacement or perforation of the IUD, which is a contraceptive device that releases progestin into the uterus. However, this is not urgent compared to the 19 year old.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Bell's palsy is not caused by a bacterial infection; hence, antibiotics are not the primary treatment.

Choice B rationale: Corticosteroids like prednisone are often used to reduce inflammation and improve symptoms in Bell's palsy.

Choice C rationale: While vitamins can support overall health, they are not the primary treatment for Bell's palsy.

Choice D rationale: Surgery is not the primary treatment for Bell's palsy unless certain complications arise.

A. None of the above B. Patient is at risk to forms a cluster of metabolic dysregulations including insulin resistance, atherogenic dyslipidemia, central obesity, and hypertension. Patient may present with high blood pressure, central obesity, high triglycerides and C. low HDL D. Patient who is at risk may be due to an absolute or relative insulin deficiency or from a decreased response of the tissue to the circulating insulin (insulin resistance). Resulting in glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis, and a decreased uptake of glucose by the peripheral tissue which make the patient very thirsty, experiencing altered mental status, high serum osmolarity and high blood glucose level.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale: This is incorrect.

Choice B rationale: This describes metabolic syndrome, a collection of risk factors, but not a direct complication of type 1 diabetes.

Choice C rationale: This describes hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state, which is more characteristic of severe hyperglycemia but not the most common complication in type 1 diabetes.

Choice D rationale: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a frequent and serious complication in type 1 diabetes, characterized by ketone formation due to the absence of insulin, leading to metabolic acidosis and potential life-threatening symptoms.

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The nurse in the women's health clinic has four patients who are waiting to be seen. Which patient should the nurse see first?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

You are working in a Family Practice office. A patient comes into the office with right facial drooping. The physician makes a diagnosis of Bell's palsy. You know that the primary treatment for this disease is likely to include:

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Which is the most common complication expected in clients with type 1 diabetes Mellitus?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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