The nurse in the emergency department is caring for a child who appears extremely ill with a high fever, unable to control their oral secretions. with voice hoarseness and inspiratory stridor and inspiratory sternal retractions while breathing. The nurse suspects epiglottitis. Which would the nurse do next?
Contact the assigned emergency room physician to evaluate the need for an advanced airway
Administer intravenous corticosteroids
Obtain a throat culture
inspect the throat to obtain further data to support the diagnosis
The Correct Answer is A
A. Contact the assigned emergency room physician to evaluate the need for an advanced airway
Explanation:
Epiglottitis is a medical emergency that can rapidly progress to airway obstruction. The classic signs and symptoms include a high fever, difficulty swallowing, voice hoarseness, inspiratory stridor, and sternal retractions. Immediate intervention may be necessary to secure the airway. Therefore, contacting the emergency room physician to evaluate the need for an advanced airway (such as intubation) is a priority.
B. Administer intravenous corticosteroids
Explanation: While corticosteroids may be used in the management of epiglottitis to reduce airway inflammation, securing the airway is the priority in the acute phase. Corticosteroids would typically be administered after securing the airway.
C. Obtain a throat culture
Explanation: Obtaining a throat culture is not the immediate priority in the case of suspected epiglottitis. Prompt intervention to secure the airway takes precedence over diagnostic tests.
D. Inspect the throat to obtain further data to support the diagnosis
Explanation: Direct visualization of the throat (inspection) may exacerbate the airway obstruction and is not recommended in the acute management of suspected epiglottitis. The priority is to secure the airway while minimizing agitation and discomfort for the child. Diagnostic procedures, such as obtaining a throat culture, can be considered after the airway is stabilized.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. 1 cup cooked rice: This exceeds the 1 oz serving size and is more than what the nurse is recommending.
B. Flour tortilla: The size of a flour tortilla can vary, but it often exceeds the 1 oz serving size, so it may provide more than the recommended amount.
C. 1 cup ready-to-eat cereal flakes: The volume of cereal can vary, and 1 cup of cereal may provide more than 1 oz of grains, depending on the type and density of the cereal.
D. 1 slice whole wheat bread: A standard slice of whole wheat bread typically provides around 1 oz of grains, making it an appropriate choice for the recommended serving size.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Ribbon-like stools
Explanation: Ribbon-like or pencil-thin stools are associated with conditions affecting the rectum, such as colorectal cancer, but they are not a typical sign of intussusception.
B. Profuse projectile vomiting
Explanation: Profuse projectile vomiting is not a typical sign of intussusception. Vomiting may occur, but it is not the primary characteristic feature.
C. Bright red blood and mucus in the stools
Explanation:
Intussusception is a condition in which one part of the intestine slides into another, causing a blockage. One of the classic signs of intussusception is the presence of "currant jelly" stools, which are characterized by a mixture of bright red blood and mucus in the stools. This occurs due to the compression of the blood vessels in the intestine, leading to bleeding and mucosal discharge.
D. Watery diarrhea
Explanation: Watery diarrhea is not a typical sign of intussusception. The condition is more commonly associated with abdominal pain, vomiting, and the characteristic "currant jelly" stools.

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