The nurse implements a primary prevention program for sexually transmitted diseases in a nurse-managed health center. Which outcome indicates that the program was effective?
New screening protocols were developed, validated, and implemented.
More than half of at-risk clients were diagnosed early in their disease process.
Clients who incurred disease complications promptly received rehabilitation.
Average client scores improved on specific risk factor knowledge tests.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: While developing new screening protocols is a positive step, it does not directly measure the effectiveness of the prevention program in terms of client outcomes or behavior change.
Choice B reason: Early diagnosis of at-risk clients is important, but it is a secondary measure of effectiveness that follows education and behavior change, which are primary prevention strategies.
Choice C reason: Prompt rehabilitation for clients with disease complications is a form of tertiary prevention and does not reflect the effectiveness of the primary prevention program.
Choice D reason: Improvement in client knowledge about specific risk factors as evidenced by test scores is a direct measure of the effectiveness of an educational prevention program. It indicates that clients have understood and potentially internalized the information necessary to prevent sexually transmitted diseases, which is the goal of primary prevention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"D","dropdown-group-2":"C"}
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Hypoglycemia refers to low blood sugar levels, typically below 70 mg/dL (3.9 mmol/L). The client’s fasting blood glucose level is 122 mg/dL (6.8 mmol/L), which is above the normal range, thus ruling out hypoglycemia.
Choice B Reason: Diabetes mellitus is diagnosed when the fasting blood glucose level is 126 mg/dL (7 mmol/L) or higher on two separate tests1. The client’s level is slightly below this threshold, suggesting that he does not currently have diabetes mellitus but is at risk.
Choice C Reason: Prediabetes is indicated by a fasting blood glucose level of 100 to 125 mg/dL (5.6 to 6.9 mmol/L)1. The client’s level falls within this range, indicating that he has higher than normal blood glucose levels but not high enough to be classified as diabetes, hence prediabetes.
Choice D Reason: Gestational diabetes occurs during pregnancy and is not applicable to this male client.
Option i Reason: Fatty liver disease is not directly indicated by the laboratory results provided and is typically associated with elevated liver enzymes and imaging findings.
Option ii Reason: Occupational factors are not directly related to the fasting blood glucose levels.
Option iii Reason: Lack of insulin production is a characteristic of type 1 diabetes, which is not indicated by the client’s fasting blood glucose level alone.
Option iv Reason: Impaired glucose tolerance is a condition where blood glucose levels are higher than normal but not high enough to be classified as diabetes. It is a characteristic of prediabetes and is indicated by the client’s fasting blood glucose level.
Correct Answer is ["400"]
Explanation
Step 1: Convert the volume of fluid to be infused from mL to L (since the rate is usually measured in mL/hr):
200 mL = 200 mL (No conversion needed as the volume is already in mL)
Step 2: Convert the time for infusion from minutes to hours (since the rate is usually measured in mL/hr):
30 minutes = 30 ÷ 60 = 0.5 hours
Step 3: Calculate the rate (volume ÷ time):
Rate = Volume ÷ Time
Rate = 200 mL ÷ 0.5 hours
Rate = 400 mL/hr
The nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver at a rate of 400 mL/hr.
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