The nurse implements a primary prevention program for sexually transmitted diseases in a nurse-managed health center. Which outcome indicates that the program was effective?
New screening protocols were developed, validated, and implemented.
More than half of at-risk clients were diagnosed early in their disease process.
Clients who incurred disease complications promptly received rehabilitation.
Average client scores improved on specific risk factor knowledge tests.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: While developing new screening protocols is a positive step, it does not directly measure the effectiveness of the prevention program in terms of client outcomes or behavior change.
Choice B reason: Early diagnosis of at-risk clients is important, but it is a secondary measure of effectiveness that follows education and behavior change, which are primary prevention strategies.
Choice C reason: Prompt rehabilitation for clients with disease complications is a form of tertiary prevention and does not reflect the effectiveness of the primary prevention program.
Choice D reason: Improvement in client knowledge about specific risk factors as evidenced by test scores is a direct measure of the effectiveness of an educational prevention program. It indicates that clients have understood and potentially internalized the information necessary to prevent sexually transmitted diseases, which is the goal of primary prevention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Knowing the type and amount of drugs ingested is critical for immediate medical intervention and treatment.
Choice B reason: While important, the timing of the last dose for bipolar disorder is less urgent than the details of the suicide attempt.
Choice C reason: Past suicide attempts are relevant for a psychiatric evaluation but are not the immediate concern in an acute overdose situation.
Choice D reason: The location of the suicide note is less critical than the medical information needed to treat the client's overdose.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Elevated blood pressure is a concern but not as immediately threatening as some other symptoms associated with mitral valve stenosis.
Choice B reason: A rapid, irregular heart rate could indicate atrial fibrillation, which is common in mitral valve stenosis, but it is not as urgent as blood-tinged sputum.
Choice C reason: Swollen feet and ankles suggest fluid retention, which is a concern in mitral valve stenosis but not as immediate as hemoptysis.
Choice D reason: Blood-tinged sputum indicates hemoptysis, which can be a sign of pulmonary edema or other serious complications requiring immediate intervention. This symptom is the most urgent and could signify a potentially life-threatening condition.
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