The nurse implements a primary prevention program for sexually transmitted diseases in a nurse-managed health center. Which outcome indicates that the program was effective?
New screening protocols were developed, validated, and implemented.
More than half of at-risk clients were diagnosed early in their disease process.
Clients who incurred disease complications promptly received rehabilitation.
Average client scores improved on specific risk factor knowledge tests.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: While developing new screening protocols is a positive step, it does not directly measure the effectiveness of the prevention program in terms of client outcomes or behavior change.
Choice B reason: Early diagnosis of at-risk clients is important, but it is a secondary measure of effectiveness that follows education and behavior change, which are primary prevention strategies.
Choice C reason: Prompt rehabilitation for clients with disease complications is a form of tertiary prevention and does not reflect the effectiveness of the primary prevention program.
Choice D reason: Improvement in client knowledge about specific risk factors as evidenced by test scores is a direct measure of the effectiveness of an educational prevention program. It indicates that clients have understood and potentially internalized the information necessary to prevent sexually transmitted diseases, which is the goal of primary prevention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: While knowing if the client can lie prone is useful, it is not the most critical piece of information prior to an intravenous pyelogram.
Choice B reason: Asking about a shellfish allergy is crucial because the contrast dye used in an intravenous pyelogram may contain iodine, which can cause an allergic reaction in individuals with shellfish allergies.
Choice C reason: Knowing the last time the client had a bowel movement is less critical than knowing about potential allergies to the contrast dye.
Choice D reason: While it's important to know about medication schedules, the risk of an allergic reaction to the contrast dye is a more immediate concern that could affect the safety of the procedure.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D"]
Explanation
The client has rested well throughout the night with a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device in place. Sequential devices are in place for venous thromboembolism prevention. The client ambulated 100 yards (91 meters) last night and 200 yards (183 meters) this morning. She reports pain rating of 2 on 0 to 10 scale, located in the abdomen, described as aching. She has tolerated fluids throughout the night with no nausea or vomiting.
Assessment findings
- Neurological Alert and oriented times 4.
- Cardiovascular WNL.
- Respiratory WNL.
- Gastrointestinal/Genitourinary Voided twice throughout night, urine clear amber in appearance. Reports no dysuria. No bowel movement but the client is passing gas.
- Integumentary 4 abdominal incisions from laparoscopic procedure sealed with surgical glue. No drainage, redness, or edema present.
- Musculoskeletal Reported chronic knee pain. 5+ strength in bilateral upper extremities, 5+ strength in bilateral lower extremities.
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