The nurse implements a primary prevention program for sexually transmitted diseases in a nurse-managed health center. Which outcome indicates that the program was effective?

New screening protocols were developed, validated, and implemented.

More than half of at-risk clients were diagnosed early in their disease process.

Clients who incurred disease complications promptly received rehabilitation.

Average client scores improved on specific risk factor knowledge tests.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: While developing new screening protocols is a positive step, it does not directly measure the effectiveness of the prevention program in terms of client outcomes or behavior change.

Choice B reason: Early diagnosis of at-risk clients is important, but it is a secondary measure of effectiveness that follows education and behavior change, which are primary prevention strategies.

Choice C reason: Prompt rehabilitation for clients with disease complications is a form of tertiary prevention and does not reflect the effectiveness of the primary prevention program.

Choice D reason: Improvement in client knowledge about specific risk factors as evidenced by test scores is a direct measure of the effectiveness of an educational prevention program. It indicates that clients have understood and potentially internalized the information necessary to prevent sexually transmitted diseases, which is the goal of primary prevention.

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Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E","G"]

Explanation

Choice A reason: Learned coping skills are essential for managing the psychological aspects of obesity and the lifestyle changes required after bariatric surgery. The patient’s engagement with a psychologist and learning coping techniques can help her deal with postoperative stress and maintain the lifestyle modifications necessary for long-term success.
Choice B reason: A psychological assessment helps in understanding the patient’s readiness for surgery and ability to adhere to the postoperative regimen. It can identify any psychological barriers to weight loss and ensure that the patient is mentally prepared for the changes ahead.
Choice C reason: The term “unstained weight loss” seems to be a typographical error, possibly intending to mean “sustained weight loss.” However, sustained weight loss is not applicable in this context as the patient has not yet undergone surgery. Therefore, it does not contribute to the chances of positive outcomes post-surgery.
Choice D reason: Recovery close to the hospital can be beneficial as it allows for easier follow-up visits and quicker access to medical care if complications arise. It also reduces the stress associated with travel for postoperative care.
Choice E reason: Recent weight loss prior to surgery is a positive indicator as it shows the patient’s commitment to lifestyle changes and weight management. It can also reduce surgical risk and improve postoperative recovery1.
Choice F reason: While age can be a factor in surgical risk, there is no direct correlation between the client’s age and the chance for positive outcomes after bariatric surgery. Therefore, it is not a contributing factor in this scenario.
Choice G reason: Family support is crucial for a patient’s recovery and long-term success after bariatric surgery. The patient’s plan to go home with her mother, who lives close to the hospital, indicates a strong support system which can help with adherence to dietary and lifestyle changes.
Choice H reason: A high BMI, such as 41.4 kg/m^2, indicates severe obesity, which is the reason for undergoing bariatric surgery. While it is a factor for considering surgery, it does not inherently increase the chance for positive outcomes post-surgery.

A. Prepare for a cesarean delivery B. Administer calcium gluconate C. Obtain blood pressure D. Stop infusion of magnesium E. Increase IV fluids F. Administer oxygen G. Obtain serum magnesium level H. Make preparations to prevent cardiac arrest

Correct Answer is ["B","C","F","G","H"]

Explanation

Choice A reason: Preparing for a cesarean delivery is not indicated solely based on the information provided. The patient is at 36 weeks with moderate pre-eclampsia and there are no immediate signs of fetal distress or a need for emergency delivery based on the nurse’s notes.
Choice B reason: Administering calcium gluconate is appropriate if there are signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity, as it acts as an antidote. The patient’s decreased level of consciousness and absent DTRs may suggest magnesium toxicity, making this a correct intervention.
Choice C reason: Obtaining blood pressure is a standard and ongoing requirement for monitoring a pre-eclampsia patient, especially after noting a significant drop in blood pressure from 170/98 mm Hg to 118/78 mm Hg, which could indicate an overcorrection or other issues.
Choice D reason: Stopping the infusion of magnesium sulfate is not indicated at this time. While the patient’s decreased LOC and absent DTRs are concerning, magnesium sulfate is critical for preventing seizures in pre-eclampsia and should not be stopped without clear signs of overdose and physician consultation.
Choice E reason: Increasing IV fluids is not indicated and could be harmful. The patient already has pulmonary edema and increasing fluids could exacerbate this condition, especially in the context of pre-eclampsia where fluid management needs to be carefully balanced.
Choice F reason: Administering oxygen is correct as the patient’s oxygen saturation has dropped from 98% to 93%, and the goal is to maintain it above 96% as per the physician’s orders.
Choice G reason: Obtaining serum magnesium level is correct because it is necessary to monitor for signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity given the patient’s symptoms of decreased LOC and absent DTRs.
Choice H reason: Preparing to prevent respiratory or cardiac arrest is correct as the patient has signs that may suggest impending magnesium sulfate toxicity, which can lead to respiratory depression or cardiac arrest.

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The nurse implements a primary prevention program for sexually transmitted diseases in a nurse-managed health center. Which outcome indicates that the program was effective?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Patient Data Exhibits The nurse reviews the client data. What increases the client's chance for positive outcomes after the completion of the bariatric surgery? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E","G"]

Explanation

Patient Data Exhibits The nurse reviews the assessment findings along with the physician orders. Which immediate interventions would the nurse initiate? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer is ["B","C","F","G","H"]

Explanation

The nurse is teaching a client with early osteoporosis the importance of including vitamin D with calcium supplements. Which information is most important for the nurse to provide to encourage the client's compliance in the management of progressing osteoporosis?

Patient Data Exhibits Review H and P, nurse's note, and laboratory results. Click to mark whether the client statement indicates understanding no understanding of the education given.

The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) washing hands prior to entering the client's room. Which action by the UAP requires additional teaching?

The healthcare provider has prescribed heparin, 3 units/kg to be administered via IV push for a client who weighs 175 pounds. The vial is labeled as "100 units/mL." How many mL should the nurse administer? (Please enter the numerical value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth.)

Patient Data Exhibits Review H and P, nurse's note, and laboratory results. What other nutritional recommendation(s) would be helpful for this client in reducing risk for type 2 diabetes mellitus? Select all that apply.

One hour following cardiac catheterization via the left femoral site, a client reports feeling weak and dizzy. Assessment reveals that the client's dressing is dry and intact. Which action should the nurse take next?