The nurse implements a primary prevention program for sexually transmitted diseases in a nurse-managed health center. Which outcome indicates that the program was effective?
New screening protocols were developed, validated, and implemented.
More than half of at-risk clients were diagnosed early in their disease process.
Clients who incurred disease complications promptly received rehabilitation.
Average client scores improved on specific risk factor knowledge tests.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: While developing new screening protocols is a positive step, it does not directly measure the effectiveness of the prevention program in terms of client outcomes or behavior change.
Choice B reason: Early diagnosis of at-risk clients is important, but it is a secondary measure of effectiveness that follows education and behavior change, which are primary prevention strategies.
Choice C reason: Prompt rehabilitation for clients with disease complications is a form of tertiary prevention and does not reflect the effectiveness of the primary prevention program.
Choice D reason: Improvement in client knowledge about specific risk factors as evidenced by test scores is a direct measure of the effectiveness of an educational prevention program. It indicates that clients have understood and potentially internalized the information necessary to prevent sexually transmitted diseases, which is the goal of primary prevention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Advising the client to maintain bedrest may not be practical or beneficial for the client's overall health and does not address the UAP's concern about safe transfer.
Choice B reason: While it is true that all clients deserve equal care, this statement does not provide a solution to the UAP's concern about safely assisting the client.
Choice C reason: Determining the client's level of mobility and need for assistance will help in creating a safe and effective plan for transferring the client to the bedside commode.
Choice D reason: Assigning another UAP may be necessary if the current UAP is unable to assist safely, but it is not the first step. The nurse should first assess the situation before making staffing changes.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Before administering IV fluids containing potassium chloride, it is crucial to ensure that the client has adequate urinary output, typically between 30 to 60 mL/hr. This indicates good kidney function, which is necessary for the excretion of potassium to prevent hyperkalemia, a potentially life-threatening condition.
Choice B reason: While magnesium levels can affect potassium levels, they are not the most critical assessment before potassium infusion. However, it is important to monitor magnesium levels as part of the overall electrolyte balance, especially in diabetic ketoacidosis.
Choice C reason: The size of the IV catheter is important for administration purposes, but it is not the most critical assessment data before starting potassium infusion. The catheter size affects the flow rate and comfort during infusion but does not impact the decision to start the infusion.
Choice D reason: Serum glucose level is a vital parameter to monitor in diabetic ketoacidosis, but it is not the most critical assessment before starting potassium infusion. The primary concern with potassium infusion is kidney function, as assessed by urinary output.
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