The nurse continues to care for the patient

The client is a 19-year-old male who is in the emergency room for a leg injury. He states he was returning to his dorm from a party and fell about 5 feet (1.5 meters) into a small ravine on campus. The client states that he drinks socially and takes no medications for any health condition.

The nurse is listening to the client.

Because the client is a male, he is especially at risk for which psychosocial two sequalae of sexual assault?

Suicide

Depression

Post-traumatic stress disorder

Becoming an abuser

Human immunodeficiency virus

Chlamydia

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : B,C

A.   Suicide is a potential risk following sexual assault due to the emotional trauma that can ensue; however, it is not specific to males and therefore not the best answer in this context.
B.   Depression is a common sequela of sexual assault among survivors due to the significant psychological impact of the trauma, which can lead to feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and a loss of interest in activities once enjoyed.
C.   Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is another frequent outcome of sexual assault, characterized by persistent mental and emotional stress as a result of injury or severe psychological shock. PTSD can manifest in nightmares, flashbacks, and severe anxiety, as well as uncontrollable thoughts about the event.
D.   Becoming an abuser is a potential outcome for some survivors of sexual assault, but it is not one of the most common sequelae and is not supported by the literature as a primary risk for male survivors.
E.   Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a risk in cases of sexual assault where the transmission of bodily fluids occurs, but it is not a psychological sequela and thus not relevant to the question.
F.   Chlamydia, like HIV, is a sexually transmitted infection that can be a risk in cases of sexual assault involving transmission of bodily fluids. However, it is not a psychological sequela and is not specific to the male gender in the context of sexual assault risk factors.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is ["suicidal ideation"," assessment of risk factors for suicide"]

Explanation

In the context of mental health care, a statement by a client expressing a wish to have died in a traumatic event is indicative of suicidal ideation. This is a serious concern and warrants immediate and careful attention from the healthcare provider. The appropriate response involves conducting a thorough assessment of risk factors for suicide, which may include evaluating the client's mental health history, current stressors, support systems, and any previous suicide attempts or self-harm behavior. This assessment is crucial in determining the level of risk and the need for potential interventions, which may range from close monitoring to emergency psychiatric evaluation. It is essential for healthcare professionals to approach such situations with sensitivity, providing support and ensuring the safety of the client as a priority.

A. Current vital signs. B. White blood cell count. C. 24-hour urinary output. D. Blood sugar level.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Current vital signs are essential for assessing for neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Vital signs such as temperature, blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate are crucial indicators of
NMS.

B. While monitoring white blood cell count may be important for detecting infections or adverse reactions to medications, it is not specific to assessing for NMS.
C. Monitoring 24-hour urinary output may be important for assessing renal function but is not specific to assessing for NMS.
D. Monitoring blood sugar levels may be important for clients with diabetes or those at risk of hyperglycemia due to medication effects, but it is not specific to assessing for NMS.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is ["suicidal ideation"," assessment of risk factors for suicide"]

Explanation

A client with schizophrenia returns to the clinic two weeks after receiving a prescription for haloperidol. To assess for neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which information is most important for the nurse to obtain during this visit?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Which is the best approach for the nurse to use when interviewing a client about suicidal ideations?

A client requests permission for the spouse to remain in the room during the admission assessment. While interviewing the client, the nurse notes a discrepancy between the client's verbal and nonverbal communication. Which action should the nurse take?

The nurse is performing intake interviews at a psychiatric clinic. A client with a known history of drug abuse reports having had a heart attack four years ago. Use of which substance places the client at highest risk for myocardial infarction?

A female client is brought to the emergency department after police officers found her disoriented, disorganized, and confused. The nurse also determine the client is homeless and is exhibiting suspiciousness. This client's plan of care should include what priority problem?

A client who has agoraphobia is beginning desensitization with the therapist, and the nurse is reinforcing the process. Which intervention has the highest priority for this client's plan of care?

Which individual should the nurse consider at highest risk for suicide?

A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted for detoxification. Based on treatment protocol, the nurse gives the client a dose of lorazepam 6 mg. Which additional prescription should the nurse administer immediately?