The nurse caring for patients admitted for infectious diseases understands what information about emerging global diseases and bioterrorism?
Plague produces a mild illness and generally has a low mortality rate.
Many infections are or could be spread by international travel.
The majority of Americans have adequate innate immunity to smallpox.
Safer food preparation practices have decreased foodborne illnesses.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Plague is a highly contagious and often fatal disease caused by the bacterium Yersinia pestis. It is transmitted to humans through the bites of infected fleas or by direct contact with infected animals or their tissues.
Plague can cause severe illness and death, even with prompt treatment. The mortality rate for untreated plague is 50-60%. Therefore, it is incorrect to state that plague produces a mild illness and generally has a low mortality rate.
Choice C rationale:
Smallpox is a highly contagious and deadly disease caused by the variola virus. It was eradicated in 1980, but there is still a risk that it could be used as a bioweapon.
Most people under the age of 40 have not been vaccinated against smallpox and therefore have no immunity to the disease. Therefore, it is incorrect to state that the majority of Americans have adequate innate immunity to smallpox.
Choice D rationale:
Safer food preparation practices have helped to decrease the incidence of foodborne illnesses.
However, foodborne illnesses can still be spread through international travel. Travelers can be exposed to contaminated food or water in other countries.
Therefore, safer food preparation practices do not eliminate the risk of foodborne illnesses being spread through international travel.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice B rationale:
Benign tumors typically grow in the wrong place or at the wrong time. This is a key distinguishing feature of benign tumors compared to normal cells. Normal cells have precise mechanisms that control their growth, ensuring they divide and multiply only when and where they are needed. Benign tumors, however, have disruptions in these regulatory mechanisms, leading to abnormal growth patterns. This means they may grow in locations where they don't belong or continue to grow even when they are no longer needed.
Here's a detailed explanation of why the other choices are incorrect:
Choice A:
Benign tumors have not lost their cellular regulation from contact inhibition. Contact inhibition is a process that stops normal cells from growing when they come into contact with other cells. Benign tumors still maintain this ability, which helps to limit their growth and prevent them from spreading to other tissues.
Choice C:
Benign tumors do not grow through invasion of other tissue. Invasion is a hallmark feature of malignant tumors (cancers). Benign tumors, on the other hand, typically grow as encapsulated masses, meaning they are surrounded by a well-defined border that separates them from surrounding tissues. They do not infiltrate or invade surrounding structures.
Choice D:
Anaplasia refers to the loss of differentiation and resemblance to the parent cells, which is a characteristic of malignant tumors, not benign tumors. Benign tumors still maintain a degree of differentiation, meaning they retain some of the characteristics of the normal cells from which they originated.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Hourly neurologic checks are not the priority intervention for a client with hypokalemia. While hypokalemia can cause neuromuscular changes, such as muscle weakness and cramps, these are not typically the most immediate or life-threatening concerns.
Cardiac monitoring is crucial to detect and manage potentially fatal arrhythmias promptly.
Neurologic checks can be implemented as part of the overall assessment and monitoring plan, but they should not supersede cardiac monitoring in this situation.
Choice C rationale:
Seizure precautions are not routinely initiated for clients with hypokalemia unless there is a specific seizure history or other neurological concerns.
Hypokalemia can cause neuromuscular irritability, but it does not directly trigger seizures in most cases. The priority remains cardiac monitoring due to the significant risk of arrhythmias.
Choice D rationale:
Administering oxygen via face mask might be considered if the client exhibits respiratory distress or hypoxemia. However, it's not the immediate priority intervention for hypokalemia without accompanying respiratory compromise.
Hypokalemia primarily affects cardiac conduction, necessitating prompt cardiac monitoring.
Oxygen therapy can be administered if clinically indicated, but it does not address the underlying electrolyte imbalance.
Rationale for the correct answer, B:
Initiating cardiac monitoring is the most crucial nursing action for a client with a serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L. Here's a detailed explanation:
Hypokalemia's significant cardiac effects:
Potassium is essential for normal cardiac conduction and muscle contraction. Hypokalemia disrupts the electrical activity of the heart, potentially leading to:
Arrhythmias (irregular heartbeats), including potentially fatal ones like ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes, such as ST segment depression, T wave flattening or inversion, and prominent U waves. Cardiac monitoring's role:
Continuously tracks the heart's electrical activity. Enables early detection of arrhythmias.
Facilitates prompt intervention to prevent life-threatening complications. Specific benefits of cardiac monitoring in hypokalemia:
Allows for early identification and treatment of arrhythmias, potentially preventing cardiac arrest. Guides electrolyte replacement therapy, ensuring appropriate potassium administration.
Assesses the effectiveness of interventions, ensuring the patient's stability.
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