A nurse is studying the differences between normal cells and benign tumor cells. What information is included in this?
Benign tumors have lost their cellular regulation from contact inhibition.
Benign tumors typically grow in the wrong place or at the wrong time.
Benign tumors grow through invasion of other tissue.
The loss of characteristics of the parent cells is referred to as anaplasia.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice B rationale:
Benign tumors typically grow in the wrong place or at the wrong time. This is a key distinguishing feature of benign tumors compared to normal cells. Normal cells have precise mechanisms that control their growth, ensuring they divide and multiply only when and where they are needed. Benign tumors, however, have disruptions in these regulatory mechanisms, leading to abnormal growth patterns. This means they may grow in locations where they don't belong or continue to grow even when they are no longer needed.
Here's a detailed explanation of why the other choices are incorrect:
Choice A:
Benign tumors have not lost their cellular regulation from contact inhibition. Contact inhibition is a process that stops normal cells from growing when they come into contact with other cells. Benign tumors still maintain this ability, which helps to limit their growth and prevent them from spreading to other tissues.
Choice C:
Benign tumors do not grow through invasion of other tissue. Invasion is a hallmark feature of malignant tumors (cancers). Benign tumors, on the other hand, typically grow as encapsulated masses, meaning they are surrounded by a well-defined border that separates them from surrounding tissues. They do not infiltrate or invade surrounding structures.
Choice D:
Anaplasia refers to the loss of differentiation and resemblance to the parent cells, which is a characteristic of malignant tumors, not benign tumors. Benign tumors still maintain a degree of differentiation, meaning they retain some of the characteristics of the normal cells from which they originated.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Incorrect. Deep-breathing exercises could potentially worsen stridor. Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound caused by a partial obstruction of the upper airway. Deep breathing can increase airflow through the narrowed airway, making the stridor more pronounced and potentially worsening the obstruction. In severe cases, it could lead to complete airway obstruction and respiratory distress.
Risk of aggravation: Deep-breathing exercises could aggravate the underlying cause of stridor, such as laryngeal edema or vocal cord dysfunction, by increasing inflammation or muscle tension in the airway.
Delay in definitive treatment: Focusing on deep-breathing exercises might delay more definitive interventions, such as intubation, which might be necessary to secure the airway and prevent respiratory failure.
Choice B rationale:
Incorrect. While albuterol nebulizer therapy can be helpful for bronchospasm, it is not the first-line treatment for stridor. Stridor is typically caused by an upper airway obstruction, and albuterol primarily targets the lower airways (bronchioles).
Limited effectiveness: Albuterol might not be effective in reducing stridor caused by upper airway obstruction, as it does not directly address the narrowing of the airway.
Potential for adverse effects: Albuterol can cause tachycardia, tremors, and anxiety, which could further complicate the patient's condition.
Choice C rationale:
Not the most immediate action. While calling a Rapid Response might be necessary if the patient's condition deteriorates, the first priority is to secure the airway and ensure adequate ventilation.
Time-consuming: Activating a Rapid Response team can take several minutes, and the patient's condition might not allow for that delay.
Choice D rationale:
Prioritizes airway management: Intubation is the most effective way to secure the airway and ensure adequate ventilation in a patient with stridor. It bypasses the obstruction and allows for controlled delivery of oxygen and ventilation.
Addresses potential for deterioration: Stridor can rapidly progress to complete airway obstruction, so prompt preparation for intubation is crucial to prevent respiratory failure.
Involves the primary healthcare provider: Consulting the primary health care provider ensures timely decision-making, appropriate medication administration (such as sedatives or paralytics for intubation), and coordination of care.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale for Choice A:
Hydroxychloroquine does not typically cause hair loss as a significant side effect. While some anecdotal reports have suggested hair thinning as a possibility, it's not a well-established or common occurrence in clinical studies.
If a patient experiences hair loss while on hydroxychloroquine, it's essential to rule out other potential causes, such as underlying medical conditions, stress, or nutritional deficiencies.
It's also important to note that some individuals may have a personal predisposition to hair loss, and medications can sometimes trigger or exacerbate this issue.
Rationale for Choice B:
Hydroxychloroquine is not known to cause a burst of energy. In fact, some patients may experience fatigue or drowsiness as a side effect.
It's crucial to inform patients about potential side effects to manage expectations and promote adherence to treatment.
If a patient experiences unexpected energy changes while taking hydroxychloroquine, it's essential to report this to their healthcare provider for further evaluation.
Rationale for Choice C:
Hydroxychloroquine is generally recommended to be taken with food or milk to reduce potential gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting.
Taking it on an empty stomach could increase the risk of these side effects, which could impact medication adherence and effectiveness.
Rationale for Choice D:
Retinal damage is the most serious adverse effect of hydroxychloroquine. It can lead to irreversible vision loss if not detected and managed early.
Patients taking hydroxychloroquine must undergo regular eye examinations to monitor for any signs of retinal toxicity.
Early detection and prompt discontinuation of the medication can often prevent permanent vision loss.
It's crucial for nurses to educate patients about this potential risk and emphasize the importance of regular eye exams.
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