A 25-year-old patient is admitted to the ambulatory surgery unit to receive two units of whole blood.
The patient has anemia, systemic lupus erythematosus, hypertension, schizophrenia, and primary hypothyroidism.
The patient’s vital signs are BP 100/68, P 110, R 24, T 99.1 °F, O2-97%. The patient reports experiencing shortness of breath with exertion, fatigue, dizziness when standing, and an intolerance to cold temperatures.
Initial labs indicate an Hgb of 6.8, an Hct of 21.2, a CRP of 38, an albumin of 14, and an iron level of 9. The patient’s current medications include hydroxychloroquine 200 mg one BID, amlodipine 10 mg one PO daily, Citalopram 20 mg one PO daily, Lisinopril 20 mg one PO daily, sertraline 50 mg one daily, levothyroxine 75 mg one PO daily, Ferrous sulfate 30 mg one PO TID, and quetiapine 100 mg one PO HS. Which patient assessment findings require immediate follow-up by the nurse at this time? (Select all that apply)
Hemoglobin and Hematocrit.
Blood Pressure 100/68, Respirations 24.
Intolerance to cold.
Amlodipine.
Albumin.
Shortness of breath with exertion.
Dizziness when standing.
Correct Answer : A,B,F,G
Rationale for A: Hemoglobin and Hematocrit
Hemoglobin (Hgb) of 6.8 g/dL is significantly below the normal range of 12-16 g/dL for women and 14-18 g/dL for men. This indicates severe anemia, which can cause several of the patient's reported symptoms, including shortness of breath, fatigue, dizziness, and intolerance to cold. It's crucial to address this promptly as severe anemia can lead to tissue hypoxia and organ damage.
Hematocrit (Hct) of 21.2% is also below the normal range of 36-46% for women and 41-50% for men. Hct measures the percentage of red blood cells in the blood, and its low value further confirms the presence of anemia.
Rationale for B: Blood Pressure 100/68, Respirations 24
Blood pressure of 100/68 mmHg is considered low, especially in a patient with a history of hypertension. This could be due to the anemia, as low red blood cell count can decrease blood volume and subsequently lower blood pressure. It's essential to monitor the patient's blood pressure closely, as hypotension can lead to dizziness, fainting, and even shock.
Respirations of 24 breaths per minute are slightly elevated above the normal adult range of 12-20 breaths per minute. This could be a compensatory mechanism for the anemia, as the body tries to increase oxygen intake. However, it could also indicate other underlying respiratory issues that need to be investigated.
Rationale for F: Shortness of breath with exertion
Shortness of breath (dyspnea) is a common symptom of anemia, as the body struggles to deliver enough oxygen to tissues during physical activity. This symptom warrants immediate attention, as it can significantly impact the patient's quality of life and could potentially signal worsening anemia or other cardiopulmonary problems.
Rationale for G: Dizziness when standing
Dizziness upon standing (orthostatic hypotension) is a sign of low blood pressure, which can be exacerbated by anemia. This can increase the risk of falls and injuries, especially in a patient with other health conditions. It's crucial to address this symptom to prevent potential complications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice B rationale:
Benign tumors typically grow in the wrong place or at the wrong time. This is a key distinguishing feature of benign tumors compared to normal cells. Normal cells have precise mechanisms that control their growth, ensuring they divide and multiply only when and where they are needed. Benign tumors, however, have disruptions in these regulatory mechanisms, leading to abnormal growth patterns. This means they may grow in locations where they don't belong or continue to grow even when they are no longer needed.
Here's a detailed explanation of why the other choices are incorrect:
Choice A:
Benign tumors have not lost their cellular regulation from contact inhibition. Contact inhibition is a process that stops normal cells from growing when they come into contact with other cells. Benign tumors still maintain this ability, which helps to limit their growth and prevent them from spreading to other tissues.
Choice C:
Benign tumors do not grow through invasion of other tissue. Invasion is a hallmark feature of malignant tumors (cancers). Benign tumors, on the other hand, typically grow as encapsulated masses, meaning they are surrounded by a well-defined border that separates them from surrounding tissues. They do not infiltrate or invade surrounding structures.
Choice D:
Anaplasia refers to the loss of differentiation and resemblance to the parent cells, which is a characteristic of malignant tumors, not benign tumors. Benign tumors still maintain a degree of differentiation, meaning they retain some of the characteristics of the normal cells from which they originated.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Prednisone:
Corticosteroid that suppresses the immune system: It's crucial to consult with the primary healthcare provider (PCP) because prednisone can impair wound healing and increase the risk of infection after surgery. The PCP may need to adjust the dosage or temporarily discontinue prednisone prior to surgery.
Potential for adrenal insufficiency: Abrupt cessation of prednisone can lead to adrenal insufficiency, a life-threatening condition. The PCP will provide guidance on how to taper the medication safely before surgery.
Interaction with anesthesia: Prednisone can interact with certain anesthetic agents, potentially increasing the risk of complications. The PCP and anesthesiologist will need to coordinate care to ensure safe medication management during surgery.
Choice B rationale:
Metoprolol:
Beta-blocker that lowers blood pressure and heart rate: While metoprolol is generally safe to continue before surgery, it's still essential to inform the PCP and anesthesiologist about its use. They will monitor heart rate and blood pressure closely during and after surgery, as metoprolol can interact with certain medications used during the procedure.
Choice C rationale:
Warfarin:
Blood thinner that prevents blood clots: Warfarin requires careful management around surgery due to its significant bleeding risk. The PCP will typically recommend holding warfarin for several days before surgery to allow for normalization of blood clotting. They may also bridge with a shorter-acting anticoagulant if necessary.
Potential for bleeding complications: If warfarin is not managed appropriately, it can lead to excessive bleeding during or after surgery. The PCP will closely monitor the patient's INR (international normalized ratio), a measure of blood clotting, to ensure it's within the safe range for surgery.
Choice D rationale:
Insulin:
Hormone that regulates blood sugar: Patients with diabetes who take insulin require careful blood sugar control around surgery to prevent complications. The PCP will provide specific instructions on how to adjust insulin doses before, during, and after surgery, as insulin needs often change due to the stress of surgery and the impact of anesthesia.
Risk of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia: Both low blood sugar (hypoglycemia) and high blood sugar (hyperglycemia) can have serious consequences during and after surgery. The PCP will work with the patient to manage blood sugar levels and prevent these complications.
Choice E rationale:
Phenytoin:
Anticonvulsant medication that controls seizures: Phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic window, meaning that blood levels must be closely monitored to ensure efficacy and prevent toxicity. Surgery can affect phenytoin levels, so the PCP will likely recommend checking a blood level before surgery and adjusting the dose as needed.
Potential for drug interactions: Phenytoin interacts with many medications, including some commonly used during surgery. The PCP will need to review the patient's medication list carefully and make any necessary adjustments to prevent interactions.
Choice F rationale:
Omega-3 fatty acid:
Generally safe to continue before surgery: Omega-3 fatty acids are not known to have significant interactions with medications used during surgery or to pose risks for wound healing or bleeding. However, it's always best to inform the PCP about any supplements being taken.
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