What nursing assessments/interventions should be completed prior to administering Isotonic IV solutions? (Select all that apply)
Elevate the head of the bed to 35-45 degrees unless contraindicated
Assess Vital Signs
Recheck MD orders post infusion
Assess lung and heart sounds
Obtain baseline weight
Review labs post infusion
Correct Answer : A,B,D,E
Choice A rationale:
Elevate the head of the bed to 35-45 degrees unless contraindicated:
Promotes venous return: Elevating the head of the bed reduces venous pooling in the lower extremities and promotes venous return to the heart. This helps to improve cardiac output and reduce the risk of fluid overload.
Reduces aspiration risk: Elevating the head of the bed also helps to prevent aspiration, as it keeps the head and neck in a more upright position. This allows for better drainage of secretions and reduces the chance of them entering the lungs.
Contraindications: There are a few contraindications to elevating the head of the bed, such as severe hypotension, head injury, or spinal injury. In these cases, the potential benefits of elevation must be weighed against the risks.
Choice B rationale:
Assess Vital Signs:
Baseline assessment: It's crucial to obtain baseline vital signs before administering any IV fluid to have a reference point for comparison. This allows for early detection of any changes that may indicate fluid overload or other complications.
Monitoring fluid status: Vital signs, including blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature, provide important information about the patient's fluid status and hemodynamic stability. Changes in vital signs can signal fluid overload, dehydration, or other problems that may require intervention.
Detecting adverse reactions: Vital signs can also help to detect adverse reactions to the IV fluid, such as allergic reactions or anaphylaxis. Early identification of these reactions is essential for prompt treatment.
Choice D rationale:
Assess lung and heart sounds:
Baseline assessment: Assessing lung and heart sounds before IV fluid administration provides a baseline for comparison and helps to identify any preexisting conditions that may affect fluid tolerance.
Detecting fluid overload: Crackles in the lungs, increased heart rate, and extra heart sounds can indicate fluid overload, which can lead to pulmonary edema and heart failure.
Monitoring response to therapy: Lung and heart sounds can also be used to monitor the patient's response to IV fluid therapy. Improvement in lung sounds and heart rate can indicate a positive response to treatment.
Choice E rationale:
Obtain baseline weight:
Accurate fluid balance: Obtaining a baseline weight is essential for accurate assessment of fluid balance. It allows for tracking of fluid gains and losses and helps to prevent fluid overload or dehydration.
Monitoring fluid status: Changes in weight can reflect changes in fluid status. Weight gain can indicate fluid retention, while weight loss can suggest dehydration.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Incorrect. Deep-breathing exercises could potentially worsen stridor. Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound caused by a partial obstruction of the upper airway. Deep breathing can increase airflow through the narrowed airway, making the stridor more pronounced and potentially worsening the obstruction. In severe cases, it could lead to complete airway obstruction and respiratory distress.
Risk of aggravation: Deep-breathing exercises could aggravate the underlying cause of stridor, such as laryngeal edema or vocal cord dysfunction, by increasing inflammation or muscle tension in the airway.
Delay in definitive treatment: Focusing on deep-breathing exercises might delay more definitive interventions, such as intubation, which might be necessary to secure the airway and prevent respiratory failure.
Choice B rationale:
Incorrect. While albuterol nebulizer therapy can be helpful for bronchospasm, it is not the first-line treatment for stridor. Stridor is typically caused by an upper airway obstruction, and albuterol primarily targets the lower airways (bronchioles).
Limited effectiveness: Albuterol might not be effective in reducing stridor caused by upper airway obstruction, as it does not directly address the narrowing of the airway.
Potential for adverse effects: Albuterol can cause tachycardia, tremors, and anxiety, which could further complicate the patient's condition.
Choice C rationale:
Not the most immediate action. While calling a Rapid Response might be necessary if the patient's condition deteriorates, the first priority is to secure the airway and ensure adequate ventilation.
Time-consuming: Activating a Rapid Response team can take several minutes, and the patient's condition might not allow for that delay.
Choice D rationale:
Prioritizes airway management: Intubation is the most effective way to secure the airway and ensure adequate ventilation in a patient with stridor. It bypasses the obstruction and allows for controlled delivery of oxygen and ventilation.
Addresses potential for deterioration: Stridor can rapidly progress to complete airway obstruction, so prompt preparation for intubation is crucial to prevent respiratory failure.
Involves the primary healthcare provider: Consulting the primary health care provider ensures timely decision-making, appropriate medication administration (such as sedatives or paralytics for intubation), and coordination of care.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
It is not accurate to state that the patient is at risk for seizures due to fungal infections. While fungal infections can occur in individuals with HIV-1, they are not a primary cause of seizures in this population.
Linking fungal infections directly to seizure risk without clear evidence could cause unnecessary anxiety in the patient. It's important to provide accurate and relevant information to patients.
Choice B rationale:
Responding with "I have no idea why you would be taking this drug" is unprofessional and unhelpful.
Nurses are expected to have a basic understanding of the medications their patients are taking and to be able to provide education and support.
It's essential to demonstrate knowledge and confidence when interacting with patients.
Choice C rationale:
While gabapentin can have mood-elevating effects in some individuals, it is not primarily used as an antidepressant. Mentioning this potential side effect without clarifying the primary purpose of the medication could mislead the patient. It's crucial to prioritize the main indication for the medication to avoid confusion.
Choice D rationale:
This is the most appropriate response because it accurately explains the primary reason for prescribing gabapentin to this patient.
Gabapentin is commonly used to treat neuropathic pain, which is pain caused by nerve damage.
HIV-1 can often lead to neuropathic pain, making gabapentin a valuable treatment option in this population.
Providing clear and accurate information about medication purpose builds trust and understanding between the nurse and the patient.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
