While assessing a patient who has just arrived from the Post Anesthesia Care Unit (PACU), the nurse hears stridor. What is the first action the nurse should take?
Ask the patient to perform deep-breathing exercises.
Administer prescribed albuterol nebulizer therapy.
Call a Rapid Response.
Contact the primary health care provider and prepare for intubation.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Incorrect. Deep-breathing exercises could potentially worsen stridor. Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound caused by a partial obstruction of the upper airway. Deep breathing can increase airflow through the narrowed airway, making the stridor more pronounced and potentially worsening the obstruction. In severe cases, it could lead to complete airway obstruction and respiratory distress.
Risk of aggravation: Deep-breathing exercises could aggravate the underlying cause of stridor, such as laryngeal edema or vocal cord dysfunction, by increasing inflammation or muscle tension in the airway.
Delay in definitive treatment: Focusing on deep-breathing exercises might delay more definitive interventions, such as intubation, which might be necessary to secure the airway and prevent respiratory failure.
Choice B rationale:
Incorrect. While albuterol nebulizer therapy can be helpful for bronchospasm, it is not the first-line treatment for stridor. Stridor is typically caused by an upper airway obstruction, and albuterol primarily targets the lower airways (bronchioles).
Limited effectiveness: Albuterol might not be effective in reducing stridor caused by upper airway obstruction, as it does not directly address the narrowing of the airway.
Potential for adverse effects: Albuterol can cause tachycardia, tremors, and anxiety, which could further complicate the patient's condition.
Choice C rationale:
Not the most immediate action. While calling a Rapid Response might be necessary if the patient's condition deteriorates, the first priority is to secure the airway and ensure adequate ventilation.
Time-consuming: Activating a Rapid Response team can take several minutes, and the patient's condition might not allow for that delay.
Choice D rationale:
Prioritizes airway management: Intubation is the most effective way to secure the airway and ensure adequate ventilation in a patient with stridor. It bypasses the obstruction and allows for controlled delivery of oxygen and ventilation.
Addresses potential for deterioration: Stridor can rapidly progress to complete airway obstruction, so prompt preparation for intubation is crucial to prevent respiratory failure.
Involves the primary healthcare provider: Consulting the primary health care provider ensures timely decision-making, appropriate medication administration (such as sedatives or paralytics for intubation), and coordination of care.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
While adequate hydration is important for overall health and urinary function, it does not directly address the priority nursing diagnosis of urinary incontinence. Increased fluid intake without addressing the underlying incontinence can actually exacerbate the problem by increasing urine output.
It's crucial to assess for signs of urinary retention or incomplete bladder emptying, as excessive fluid intake can worsen these conditions.
Individualized fluid intake goals should be established based on the client's overall health status, bladder capacity, and fluid balance.
Choice B rationale:
Satisfaction with incontinence products can improve comfort and quality of life, but it does not necessarily indicate that the underlying issue of incontinence has been resolved.
It's important to evaluate the effectiveness of incontinence products in managing leakage and preventing skin breakdown, but they should not be considered a definitive solution for incontinence.
Explore other interventions to address the root cause of incontinence, such as bladder training, pelvic floor muscle exercises, or medications.
Choice C rationale:
Increased activity and socialization can be positive outcomes of effective incontinence management, but they are not direct measures of the priority nursing diagnosis.
Improved social engagement and activity levels might reflect a reduction in incontinence episodes and increased confidence, but they should not be the sole indicators of success.
Assess for specific changes in incontinence frequency, severity, and impact on daily life to more accurately gauge progress.
Choice D rationale:
Intact, healthy skin in the perineal area is a direct and objective indicator that a priority nursing diagnosis of urinary incontinence has been met.
It demonstrates that the interventions implemented to manage incontinence have been effective in preventing skin breakdown and irritation, which are common complications of incontinence.
This finding aligns with the goal of maintaining skin integrity and preventing infection, which are essential aspects of incontinence care.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","F","G"]
Explanation
Rationale for A: Hemoglobin and Hematocrit
Hemoglobin (Hgb) of 6.8 g/dL is significantly below the normal range of 12-16 g/dL for women and 14-18 g/dL for men. This indicates severe anemia, which can cause several of the patient's reported symptoms, including shortness of breath, fatigue, dizziness, and intolerance to cold. It's crucial to address this promptly as severe anemia can lead to tissue hypoxia and organ damage.
Hematocrit (Hct) of 21.2% is also below the normal range of 36-46% for women and 41-50% for men. Hct measures the percentage of red blood cells in the blood, and its low value further confirms the presence of anemia.
Rationale for B: Blood Pressure 100/68, Respirations 24
Blood pressure of 100/68 mmHg is considered low, especially in a patient with a history of hypertension. This could be due to the anemia, as low red blood cell count can decrease blood volume and subsequently lower blood pressure. It's essential to monitor the patient's blood pressure closely, as hypotension can lead to dizziness, fainting, and even shock.
Respirations of 24 breaths per minute are slightly elevated above the normal adult range of 12-20 breaths per minute. This could be a compensatory mechanism for the anemia, as the body tries to increase oxygen intake. However, it could also indicate other underlying respiratory issues that need to be investigated.
Rationale for F: Shortness of breath with exertion
Shortness of breath (dyspnea) is a common symptom of anemia, as the body struggles to deliver enough oxygen to tissues during physical activity. This symptom warrants immediate attention, as it can significantly impact the patient's quality of life and could potentially signal worsening anemia or other cardiopulmonary problems.
Rationale for G: Dizziness when standing
Dizziness upon standing (orthostatic hypotension) is a sign of low blood pressure, which can be exacerbated by anemia. This can increase the risk of falls and injuries, especially in a patient with other health conditions. It's crucial to address this symptom to prevent potential complications.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.