While assessing a patient who has just arrived from the Post Anesthesia Care Unit (PACU), the nurse hears stridor. What is the first action the nurse should take?
Ask the patient to perform deep-breathing exercises.
Administer prescribed albuterol nebulizer therapy.
Call a Rapid Response.
Contact the primary health care provider and prepare for intubation.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Incorrect. Deep-breathing exercises could potentially worsen stridor. Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound caused by a partial obstruction of the upper airway. Deep breathing can increase airflow through the narrowed airway, making the stridor more pronounced and potentially worsening the obstruction. In severe cases, it could lead to complete airway obstruction and respiratory distress.
Risk of aggravation: Deep-breathing exercises could aggravate the underlying cause of stridor, such as laryngeal edema or vocal cord dysfunction, by increasing inflammation or muscle tension in the airway.
Delay in definitive treatment: Focusing on deep-breathing exercises might delay more definitive interventions, such as intubation, which might be necessary to secure the airway and prevent respiratory failure.
Choice B rationale:
Incorrect. While albuterol nebulizer therapy can be helpful for bronchospasm, it is not the first-line treatment for stridor. Stridor is typically caused by an upper airway obstruction, and albuterol primarily targets the lower airways (bronchioles).
Limited effectiveness: Albuterol might not be effective in reducing stridor caused by upper airway obstruction, as it does not directly address the narrowing of the airway.
Potential for adverse effects: Albuterol can cause tachycardia, tremors, and anxiety, which could further complicate the patient's condition.
Choice C rationale:
Not the most immediate action. While calling a Rapid Response might be necessary if the patient's condition deteriorates, the first priority is to secure the airway and ensure adequate ventilation.
Time-consuming: Activating a Rapid Response team can take several minutes, and the patient's condition might not allow for that delay.
Choice D rationale:
Prioritizes airway management: Intubation is the most effective way to secure the airway and ensure adequate ventilation in a patient with stridor. It bypasses the obstruction and allows for controlled delivery of oxygen and ventilation.
Addresses potential for deterioration: Stridor can rapidly progress to complete airway obstruction, so prompt preparation for intubation is crucial to prevent respiratory failure.
Involves the primary healthcare provider: Consulting the primary health care provider ensures timely decision-making, appropriate medication administration (such as sedatives or paralytics for intubation), and coordination of care.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Step 1: Divide the prescribed dose (40 mg) by the concentration on hand (30 mg/mL).
Step 2: Perform the calculation: 40 mg ÷ 30 mg/mL = 1.3333 mL.
Step 3: Round the answer to the nearest tenth: 1.3333 mL rounds to 1.3 mL.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Elevate the head of the bed to 35-45 degrees unless contraindicated:
Promotes venous return: Elevating the head of the bed reduces venous pooling in the lower extremities and promotes venous return to the heart. This helps to improve cardiac output and reduce the risk of fluid overload.
Reduces aspiration risk: Elevating the head of the bed also helps to prevent aspiration, as it keeps the head and neck in a more upright position. This allows for better drainage of secretions and reduces the chance of them entering the lungs.
Contraindications: There are a few contraindications to elevating the head of the bed, such as severe hypotension, head injury, or spinal injury. In these cases, the potential benefits of elevation must be weighed against the risks.
Choice B rationale:
Assess Vital Signs:
Baseline assessment: It's crucial to obtain baseline vital signs before administering any IV fluid to have a reference point for comparison. This allows for early detection of any changes that may indicate fluid overload or other complications.
Monitoring fluid status: Vital signs, including blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature, provide important information about the patient's fluid status and hemodynamic stability. Changes in vital signs can signal fluid overload, dehydration, or other problems that may require intervention.
Detecting adverse reactions: Vital signs can also help to detect adverse reactions to the IV fluid, such as allergic reactions or anaphylaxis. Early identification of these reactions is essential for prompt treatment.
Choice D rationale:
Assess lung and heart sounds:
Baseline assessment: Assessing lung and heart sounds before IV fluid administration provides a baseline for comparison and helps to identify any preexisting conditions that may affect fluid tolerance.
Detecting fluid overload: Crackles in the lungs, increased heart rate, and extra heart sounds can indicate fluid overload, which can lead to pulmonary edema and heart failure.
Monitoring response to therapy: Lung and heart sounds can also be used to monitor the patient's response to IV fluid therapy. Improvement in lung sounds and heart rate can indicate a positive response to treatment.
Choice E rationale:
Obtain baseline weight:
Accurate fluid balance: Obtaining a baseline weight is essential for accurate assessment of fluid balance. It allows for tracking of fluid gains and losses and helps to prevent fluid overload or dehydration.
Monitoring fluid status: Changes in weight can reflect changes in fluid status. Weight gain can indicate fluid retention, while weight loss can suggest dehydration.
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