While assessing a patient who has just arrived from the Post Anesthesia Care Unit (PACU), the nurse hears stridor. What is the first action the nurse should take?
Ask the patient to perform deep-breathing exercises.
Administer prescribed albuterol nebulizer therapy.
Call a Rapid Response.
Contact the primary health care provider and prepare for intubation.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Incorrect. Deep-breathing exercises could potentially worsen stridor. Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound caused by a partial obstruction of the upper airway. Deep breathing can increase airflow through the narrowed airway, making the stridor more pronounced and potentially worsening the obstruction. In severe cases, it could lead to complete airway obstruction and respiratory distress.
Risk of aggravation: Deep-breathing exercises could aggravate the underlying cause of stridor, such as laryngeal edema or vocal cord dysfunction, by increasing inflammation or muscle tension in the airway.
Delay in definitive treatment: Focusing on deep-breathing exercises might delay more definitive interventions, such as intubation, which might be necessary to secure the airway and prevent respiratory failure.
Choice B rationale:
Incorrect. While albuterol nebulizer therapy can be helpful for bronchospasm, it is not the first-line treatment for stridor. Stridor is typically caused by an upper airway obstruction, and albuterol primarily targets the lower airways (bronchioles).
Limited effectiveness: Albuterol might not be effective in reducing stridor caused by upper airway obstruction, as it does not directly address the narrowing of the airway.
Potential for adverse effects: Albuterol can cause tachycardia, tremors, and anxiety, which could further complicate the patient's condition.
Choice C rationale:
Not the most immediate action. While calling a Rapid Response might be necessary if the patient's condition deteriorates, the first priority is to secure the airway and ensure adequate ventilation.
Time-consuming: Activating a Rapid Response team can take several minutes, and the patient's condition might not allow for that delay.
Choice D rationale:
Prioritizes airway management: Intubation is the most effective way to secure the airway and ensure adequate ventilation in a patient with stridor. It bypasses the obstruction and allows for controlled delivery of oxygen and ventilation.
Addresses potential for deterioration: Stridor can rapidly progress to complete airway obstruction, so prompt preparation for intubation is crucial to prevent respiratory failure.
Involves the primary healthcare provider: Consulting the primary health care provider ensures timely decision-making, appropriate medication administration (such as sedatives or paralytics for intubation), and coordination of care.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Hourly neurologic checks are not the priority intervention for a client with hypokalemia. While hypokalemia can cause neuromuscular changes, such as muscle weakness and cramps, these are not typically the most immediate or life-threatening concerns.
Cardiac monitoring is crucial to detect and manage potentially fatal arrhythmias promptly.
Neurologic checks can be implemented as part of the overall assessment and monitoring plan, but they should not supersede cardiac monitoring in this situation.
Choice C rationale:
Seizure precautions are not routinely initiated for clients with hypokalemia unless there is a specific seizure history or other neurological concerns.
Hypokalemia can cause neuromuscular irritability, but it does not directly trigger seizures in most cases. The priority remains cardiac monitoring due to the significant risk of arrhythmias.
Choice D rationale:
Administering oxygen via face mask might be considered if the client exhibits respiratory distress or hypoxemia. However, it's not the immediate priority intervention for hypokalemia without accompanying respiratory compromise.
Hypokalemia primarily affects cardiac conduction, necessitating prompt cardiac monitoring.
Oxygen therapy can be administered if clinically indicated, but it does not address the underlying electrolyte imbalance.
Rationale for the correct answer, B:
Initiating cardiac monitoring is the most crucial nursing action for a client with a serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L. Here's a detailed explanation:
Hypokalemia's significant cardiac effects:
Potassium is essential for normal cardiac conduction and muscle contraction. Hypokalemia disrupts the electrical activity of the heart, potentially leading to:
Arrhythmias (irregular heartbeats), including potentially fatal ones like ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes, such as ST segment depression, T wave flattening or inversion, and prominent U waves. Cardiac monitoring's role:
Continuously tracks the heart's electrical activity. Enables early detection of arrhythmias.
Facilitates prompt intervention to prevent life-threatening complications. Specific benefits of cardiac monitoring in hypokalemia:
Allows for early identification and treatment of arrhythmias, potentially preventing cardiac arrest. Guides electrolyte replacement therapy, ensuring appropriate potassium administration.
Assesses the effectiveness of interventions, ensuring the patient's stability.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
Step 1: Divide the total volume of fluid (2000 ml) by the total time in hours (24 hours). Step 2: Perform the calculation: 2000 ml ÷ 24 hours = 83.33 ml/hour.
Step 3: Round the answer to the nearest whole number, as fluid administration is typically measured in whole milliliters.
The correct answer is 83 ml/hour.
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