While assessing a patient who has just arrived from the Post Anesthesia Care Unit (PACU), the nurse hears stridor. What is the first action the nurse should take?
Ask the patient to perform deep-breathing exercises.
Administer prescribed albuterol nebulizer therapy.
Call a Rapid Response.
Contact the primary health care provider and prepare for intubation.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Incorrect. Deep-breathing exercises could potentially worsen stridor. Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound caused by a partial obstruction of the upper airway. Deep breathing can increase airflow through the narrowed airway, making the stridor more pronounced and potentially worsening the obstruction. In severe cases, it could lead to complete airway obstruction and respiratory distress.
Risk of aggravation: Deep-breathing exercises could aggravate the underlying cause of stridor, such as laryngeal edema or vocal cord dysfunction, by increasing inflammation or muscle tension in the airway.
Delay in definitive treatment: Focusing on deep-breathing exercises might delay more definitive interventions, such as intubation, which might be necessary to secure the airway and prevent respiratory failure.
Choice B rationale:
Incorrect. While albuterol nebulizer therapy can be helpful for bronchospasm, it is not the first-line treatment for stridor. Stridor is typically caused by an upper airway obstruction, and albuterol primarily targets the lower airways (bronchioles).
Limited effectiveness: Albuterol might not be effective in reducing stridor caused by upper airway obstruction, as it does not directly address the narrowing of the airway.
Potential for adverse effects: Albuterol can cause tachycardia, tremors, and anxiety, which could further complicate the patient's condition.
Choice C rationale:
Not the most immediate action. While calling a Rapid Response might be necessary if the patient's condition deteriorates, the first priority is to secure the airway and ensure adequate ventilation.
Time-consuming: Activating a Rapid Response team can take several minutes, and the patient's condition might not allow for that delay.
Choice D rationale:
Prioritizes airway management: Intubation is the most effective way to secure the airway and ensure adequate ventilation in a patient with stridor. It bypasses the obstruction and allows for controlled delivery of oxygen and ventilation.
Addresses potential for deterioration: Stridor can rapidly progress to complete airway obstruction, so prompt preparation for intubation is crucial to prevent respiratory failure.
Involves the primary healthcare provider: Consulting the primary health care provider ensures timely decision-making, appropriate medication administration (such as sedatives or paralytics for intubation), and coordination of care.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Skin and mucous membranes are the most effective and crucial barriers to infection. They provide a continuous physical barrier that prevents pathogens from entering the body. Here's a detailed explanation of their protective mechanisms:
1. Physical Barrier:
Skin: The outermost layer of skin, the epidermis, is composed of tightly packed cells that are difficult for pathogens to penetrate. It's also covered in a layer of sebum, an oily substance that helps to repel water and microorganisms.
Mucous membranes: These moist linings cover the openings of the body, such as the nose, mouth, eyes, and digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts. They produce mucus, a sticky substance that traps pathogens and prevents them from entering the body. Mucus also contains enzymes and antibodies that can kill certain pathogens.
2. Chemical Barrier:
Skin and mucous membranes secrete a variety of substances that have antimicrobial properties. These include: Sebum: Contains fatty acids that can kill bacteria and fungi.
Sweat: Contains salt and lysozyme, an enzyme that can break down bacterial cell walls. Saliva: Contains enzymes that can break down food and kill bacteria.
Gastric acid: The highly acidic environment of the stomach kills most pathogens that are ingested.
3. Immune Barrier:
Skin and mucous membranes are home to a diverse community of microbes, known as the microbiome. These microbes play an important role in protecting against infection by competing with pathogens for resources and space.
Mucous membranes contain specialized immune cells, such as M cells and dendritic cells, that can recognize pathogens and initiate an immune response.
In contrast, the other choices are less effective barriers to infection:
Choice B: Gastrointestinal secretions, such as gastric acid, do play a role in preventing infection, but they are not as effective as skin and mucous membranes. Pathogens can still enter the body through the digestive tract, even in the presence of gastric acid.
Choice C: Colonization by host bacteria can actually help to protect against infection by competing with pathogens. However, it is not a primary barrier to infection.
Choice D: Inflammatory processes are a response to infection, not a barrier to it. They occur after pathogens have already entered the body.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Tolerance to the opiate medication is developing. This is the most likely explanation for why the client's pain is no longer being controlled by the same dose of medication. Tolerance is a physiological adaptation that occurs with repeated exposure to opioids, leading to a decrease in their effectiveness over time. This means that the client's body is becoming less responsive to the medication, and a higher dose is needed to achieve the same level of pain relief.
Choice B rationale:
There is likely a history of addiction. While it is possible that the client has a history of addiction, this is not the most likely explanation for why the medication is no longer controlling the pain. Addiction is a complex condition that is characterized by compulsive drug seeking and use, despite negative consequences. It is not simply a matter of tolerance developing.
Choice C rationale:
The client is opiate naive. This means that the client has not previously been exposed to opioids. While opiate-naive clients may be more sensitive to the effects of opioids, they are also more likely to experience side effects, such as nausea and vomiting. The fact that the client has been receiving the same dose of medication for 2 days without experiencing side effects suggests that they are not opiate naive.
Choice D rationale:
Physical dependence. Physical dependence is a state of adaptation that occurs with repeated exposure to opioids, leading to withdrawal symptoms if the medication is abruptly stopped. However, physical dependence does not necessarily mean that the medication is no longer effective in controlling pain.
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