While assessing a patient who has just arrived from the Post Anesthesia Care Unit (PACU), the nurse hears stridor. What is the first action the nurse should take?

Ask the patient to perform deep-breathing exercises.

Administer prescribed albuterol nebulizer therapy.

Call a Rapid Response.

Contact the primary health care provider and prepare for intubation.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale:
Incorrect. Deep-breathing exercises could potentially worsen stridor. Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound caused by a partial obstruction of the upper airway. Deep breathing can increase airflow through the narrowed airway, making the stridor more pronounced and potentially worsening the obstruction. In severe cases, it could lead to complete airway obstruction and respiratory distress.
Risk of aggravation: Deep-breathing exercises could aggravate the underlying cause of stridor, such as laryngeal edema or vocal cord dysfunction, by increasing inflammation or muscle tension in the airway.
Delay in definitive treatment: Focusing on deep-breathing exercises might delay more definitive interventions, such as intubation, which might be necessary to secure the airway and prevent respiratory failure.
Choice B rationale:
Incorrect. While albuterol nebulizer therapy can be helpful for bronchospasm, it is not the first-line treatment for stridor. Stridor is typically caused by an upper airway obstruction, and albuterol primarily targets the lower airways (bronchioles).
Limited effectiveness: Albuterol might not be effective in reducing stridor caused by upper airway obstruction, as it does not directly address the narrowing of the airway.
Potential for adverse effects: Albuterol can cause tachycardia, tremors, and anxiety, which could further complicate the patient's condition.
Choice C rationale:
Not the most immediate action. While calling a Rapid Response might be necessary if the patient's condition deteriorates, the first priority is to secure the airway and ensure adequate ventilation.
Time-consuming: Activating a Rapid Response team can take several minutes, and the patient's condition might not allow for that delay.
Choice D rationale:
Prioritizes airway management: Intubation is the most effective way to secure the airway and ensure adequate ventilation in a patient with stridor. It bypasses the obstruction and allows for controlled delivery of oxygen and ventilation.
Addresses potential for deterioration: Stridor can rapidly progress to complete airway obstruction, so prompt preparation for intubation is crucial to prevent respiratory failure.
Involves the primary healthcare provider: Consulting the primary health care provider ensures timely decision-making, appropriate medication administration (such as sedatives or paralytics for intubation), and coordination of care.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Assessing the patient's adherence to the drug regimen is the most crucial first step in this situation. Here's a comprehensive explanation:

1. Significance of Adherence in HIV Treatment:

Viral Suppression and Disease Progression: Adherence to antiretroviral therapy (ART) is paramount in HIV management. It directly impacts viral suppression, preventing disease progression, and reducing the risk of opportunistic infections and complications. Non-adherence can lead to viral rebound, increased viral load, and potential disease advancement.

Primary Cause of Treatment Failure: Suboptimal adherence is the leading cause of treatment failure in HIV patients. It can result in:

Reduced effectiveness of ART Development of drug resistance Increased healthcare costs Increased risk of transmission

2. Rationale for Prioritizing Adherence Assessment:

Direct Link to Viral Load and Health Status: A sudden decline in health status and a significant increase in viral load strongly suggest potential non-adherence. Assessing adherence early on can:

Identify the root cause of the clinical deterioration

Inform timely interventions to address adherence barriers Prevent further complications

3. Assessing Adherence Thoroughly:

Non-Judgmental Approach: Creating a supportive and non-judgmental environment is essential for honest and accurate assessment.

Open-Ended Questions: Utilize open-ended questions to explore potential challenges and barriers to adherence, such as: Difficulties with medication schedules

Side effects Financial constraints Forgetfulness

Mental health concerns Substance abuse

Lack of social support

Objective Measures: Complement patient reports with objective measures like:

Pill counts

Pharmacy refill records

Medication Event Monitoring Systems (MEMS)

4. Addressing Adherence Barriers:

Tailored Interventions: Based on the assessment findings, develop individualized strategies to enhance adherence, such as: Simplifying medication regimens

Addressing side effects

Providing medication reminders

Offering counseling and support services

Connecting patients with resources

5. Reassessing and Monitoring:

Continuous Evaluation: Regularly reassess adherence and viral load to ensure treatment effectiveness and make adjustments as needed.

Conclusion:

While other options (B, C, D) may provide valuable information, prioritizing adherence assessment is critical to promptly identify and address potential adherence issues, optimize treatment outcomes, and prevent further health decline in HIV patients experiencing viral rebound.

A. Benign tumors have lost their cellular regulation from contact inhibition. B. Benign tumors typically grow in the wrong place or at the wrong time. C. Benign tumors grow through invasion of other tissue. D. The loss of characteristics of the parent cells is referred to as anaplasia.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice B rationale:
Benign tumors typically grow in the wrong place or at the wrong time. This is a key distinguishing feature of benign tumors compared to normal cells. Normal cells have precise mechanisms that control their growth, ensuring they divide and multiply only when and where they are needed. Benign tumors, however, have disruptions in these regulatory mechanisms, leading to abnormal growth patterns. This means they may grow in locations where they don't belong or continue to grow even when they are no longer needed.
Here's a detailed explanation of why the other choices are incorrect:
Choice A:
Benign tumors have not lost their cellular regulation from contact inhibition. Contact inhibition is a process that stops normal cells from growing when they come into contact with other cells. Benign tumors still maintain this ability, which helps to limit their growth and prevent them from spreading to other tissues.
Choice C:
Benign tumors do not grow through invasion of other tissue. Invasion is a hallmark feature of malignant tumors (cancers). Benign tumors, on the other hand, typically grow as encapsulated masses, meaning they are surrounded by a well-defined border that separates them from surrounding tissues. They do not infiltrate or invade surrounding structures.
Choice D:
Anaplasia refers to the loss of differentiation and resemblance to the parent cells, which is a characteristic of malignant tumors, not benign tumors. Benign tumors still maintain a degree of differentiation, meaning they retain some of the characteristics of the normal cells from which they originated.

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While assessing a patient who has just arrived from the Post Anesthesia Care Unit (PACU), the nurse hears stridor. What is the first action the nurse should take?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient with HIV-1 has experienced a sudden decline in health status accompanied by a significant increase in viral load. What is the first action the nurse should take?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is studying the differences between normal cells and benign tumor cells. What information is included in this?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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