A nurse studying infection control learns that which factor is the most effective and crucial barrier to infection?

Skin and mucous membranes

Gastrointestinal secretions

Colonization by host bacteria

Inflammatory processes

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale:
Skin and mucous membranes are the most effective and crucial barriers to infection. They provide a continuous physical barrier that prevents pathogens from entering the body. Here's a detailed explanation of their protective mechanisms:
1.   Physical Barrier:
Skin: The outermost layer of skin, the epidermis, is composed of tightly packed cells that are difficult for pathogens to penetrate. It's also covered in a layer of sebum, an oily substance that helps to repel water and microorganisms.
Mucous membranes: These moist linings cover the openings of the body, such as the nose, mouth, eyes, and digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts. They produce mucus, a sticky substance that traps pathogens and prevents them from entering the body. Mucus also contains enzymes and antibodies that can kill certain pathogens.
2.   Chemical Barrier:
Skin and mucous membranes secrete a variety of substances that have antimicrobial properties. These include: Sebum: Contains fatty acids that can kill bacteria and fungi.
Sweat: Contains salt and lysozyme, an enzyme that can break down bacterial cell walls. Saliva: Contains enzymes that can break down food and kill bacteria.
Gastric acid: The highly acidic environment of the stomach kills most pathogens that are ingested.
3.   Immune Barrier:
Skin and mucous membranes are home to a diverse community of microbes, known as the microbiome. These microbes play an important role in protecting against infection by competing with pathogens for resources and space.
Mucous membranes contain specialized immune cells, such as M cells and dendritic cells, that can recognize pathogens and initiate an immune response.
In contrast, the other choices are less effective barriers to infection:
Choice B: Gastrointestinal secretions, such as gastric acid, do play a role in preventing infection, but they are not as effective as skin and mucous membranes. Pathogens can still enter the body through the digestive tract, even in the presence of gastric acid.
Choice C: Colonization by host bacteria can actually help to protect against infection by competing with pathogens. However, it is not a primary barrier to infection.
Choice D: Inflammatory processes are a response to infection, not a barrier to it. They occur after pathogens have already entered the body.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Rationale for Choice A:
While it's important for the primary healthcare provider to be informed about the CD4+ results, it's not the first action the nurse should take. The priority is to implement appropriate infection control measures to protect the patient, other patients, and healthcare staff.
CD4+ cell count is a crucial indicator of the patient's immune status. A count of 180/mm is significantly low, suggesting a weakened immune system and increased vulnerability to infections. However, informing the provider alone doesn't directly address the immediate need for infection control.
Rationale for Choice B:
Airborne Precautions are specifically used for patients with known or suspected airborne infections, such as tuberculosis, measles, or varicella. These precautions involve the use of negative pressure rooms and N95 respirators.
In this case, the patient's TB skin test was negative, indicating no evidence of active tuberculosis infection. Implementing Airborne Precautions unnecessarily could lead to excessive resource utilization and potential stigmatization of the patient.
Rationale for Choice C:
Droplet Precautions are used for patients with infections that can be spread through large respiratory droplets, such as influenza, pertussis, or meningococcal meningitis. These precautions involve the use of masks and eye protection.
While the patient's symptoms of fever, night sweats, and severe cough could be consistent with a droplet-spread infection, there's no definitive evidence to support this at the present time. Initiating Droplet Precautions without a clear indication could also lead to unnecessary resource use and potential anxiety for the patient.
Rationale for Choice D:
Standard Precautions are the foundation of infection control and should be used for all patients, regardless of their known or suspected infection status. These precautions include hand hygiene, use of personal protective equipment (PPE) when indicated, and safe handling of sharps and bodily fluids.

By implementing Standard Precautions, the nurse can effectively minimize the risk of transmission of pathogens, protecting both the patient and other individuals in the healthcare setting. This is the most appropriate first action to ensure a safe and appropriate level of care.

A. Advancing age B. Exposure to tobacco C. Exposure to occupational chemicals D. Infection with an oncovirus.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
While advancing age is a significant risk factor for cancer, it is not considered the single biggest risk factor. The risk of developing cancer does increase with age, primarily due to the accumulation of DNA damage over time. This damage can arise from various sources, including exposure to carcinogens, errors in DNA replication, and oxidative stress. With age, the body's ability to repair DNA damage also declines, making cells more susceptible to cancerous changes.
However, it's important to note that cancer can develop at any age, and even younger individuals can be affected if exposed to other significant risk factors.
Choice B rationale:
Exposure to tobacco is widely recognized as the single biggest risk factor for developing cancer. It is estimated to be responsible for about 25-30% of all cancer deaths worldwide.
Tobacco smoke contains over 70 known carcinogens, which are substances that can damage DNA and lead to cancer. These carcinogens can affect various organs in the body, including the lungs, mouth, throat, esophagus, stomach, pancreas, liver, bladder, kidney, cervix, and colon.
The risk of cancer increases with the amount and duration of tobacco use. Even exposure to secondhand smoke can increase the risk of cancer.
Quitting tobacco use is the most effective way to reduce the risk of cancer.
Choice C rationale:
Exposure to occupational chemicals is a known risk factor for certain types of cancer, such as lung cancer, bladder cancer, and leukemia. However, it is not considered the single biggest risk factor for developing cancer overall.
The risk of cancer from occupational chemicals depends on the specific chemical, the level of exposure, and the duration of exposure.
Workplace safety measures, such as using protective equipment and limiting exposure to hazardous chemicals, can help reduce the risk of cancer.
Choice D rationale:
Infection with certain viruses, known as oncoviruses, can increase the risk of developing certain types of cancer. For example, infection with human papillomavirus (HPV) can increase the risk of cervical cancer, and infection with hepatitis B virus (HBV) can increase the risk of liver cancer.
However, oncoviruses are not considered the single biggest risk factor for developing cancer overall. Vaccines are available to protect against some oncoviruses, such as HPV and HBV.

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A nurse studying infection control learns that which factor is the most effective and crucial barrier to infection?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient diagnosed with HIV-II is admitted to the hospital presenting symptoms of fever, night sweats, and a severe cough. The laboratory results show a CD4+ cell count of 180/mm and a negative tuberculosis (TB) skin test conducted 4 days prior. What is the first action the nurse should take?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse learns that which of the following is the single biggest risk factor for developing cancer?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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