You are instructed to administer 40 mg of methadone (Dolophine) subcutaneously for opioid detoxification. Given that you have a concentration of 30 mg/mL on hand, how much should you draw into the syringe?
1 ml
1.5 ml
1.3 ml
2 ml
The Correct Answer is C
Step 1: Divide the prescribed dose (40 mg) by the concentration on hand (30 mg/mL).
Step 2: Perform the calculation: 40 mg ÷ 30 mg/mL = 1.3333 mL.
Step 3: Round the answer to the nearest tenth: 1.3333 mL rounds to 1.3 mL.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale for Choice A:
A shift to the left in the white blood cell (WBC) count indicates an increased presence of immature neutrophils, known as bands. This is a hallmark sign of infection, as the body is rapidly producing and releasing these cells to fight off invading pathogens.
Prompt notification of the primary health care provider is crucial to initiate timely antibiotic therapy, if indicated. Early intervention with appropriate antibiotics can effectively combat the infection, prevent its progression, and potentially avert serious complications.
Delaying antibiotic treatment can allow the infection to worsen, potentially leading to sepsis, septic shock, or other life- threatening conditions.
Rationale for Choice B:
While informing the client about the significance of a shift to the left is important for education and understanding, it does not address the immediate need for medical intervention.
The priority action is to involve the primary health care provider for prompt assessment and potential initiation of antibiotic therapy.
Rationale for Choice C:
Documenting findings and continuing to monitor the client's condition is essential for ongoing assessment and evaluation, but it does not constitute a proactive intervention to address the underlying infection.
Documentation alone does not initiate treatment, and monitoring without intervention risks allowing the infection to progress.
Rationale for Choice D:
Protective isolation is not routinely indicated for clients with a shift to the left in their WBC count unless there is a specific concern for transmission of a highly contagious infection.
The decision to implement protective isolation measures would be based on the client's overall clinical presentation and potential infectious risks, as determined by the primary health care provider.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
It is incorrect to state that the client will not be able to bathe with a central vascular access device.
While certain precautions are necessary to keep the device dry and clean during bathing, bathing is still possible and important for maintaining hygiene.
The nurse should provide specific instructions on how to protect the device during bathing, such as using a waterproof cover or avoiding direct water contact.
Choice B rationale:
It is inaccurate to claim that there is no risk of infection associated with a central vascular access device, even when sterile technique is used during insertion.
Infection is a serious potential complication, and it's crucial to emphasize ongoing infection prevention measures to the client.
The nurse should educate the client about signs and symptoms of infection to watch for and the importance of prompt reporting to healthcare providers.
Choice C rationale:
It is not always necessary to wear a sling on the arm with the central vascular access device.
The need for a sling may depend on the type of device, the client's condition, and the healthcare provider's recommendations.
If a sling is indicated, the nurse should provide instructions on proper use and care to maintain comfort and prevent complications.
Choice D rationale:
This is the correct statement to include in the client's teaching.
Thorough cleaning of the connections prior to accessing the device is essential for preventing infection.
The client should be empowered to advocate for themselves and ensure that all providers follow proper infection control procedures.
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