The primary healthcare provider prescribes Hydroxychloroquine for a patient. What information should the nurse include when discussing this medication with the patient?
This medication may cause hair loss.
This medication may cause a burst of energy.
This medication should be taken on an empty stomach.
The most serious adverse effect of this medication is retinal damage.
The Correct Answer is D
Rationale for Choice A:
Hydroxychloroquine does not typically cause hair loss as a significant side effect. While some anecdotal reports have suggested hair thinning as a possibility, it's not a well-established or common occurrence in clinical studies.
If a patient experiences hair loss while on hydroxychloroquine, it's essential to rule out other potential causes, such as underlying medical conditions, stress, or nutritional deficiencies.
It's also important to note that some individuals may have a personal predisposition to hair loss, and medications can sometimes trigger or exacerbate this issue.
Rationale for Choice B:
Hydroxychloroquine is not known to cause a burst of energy. In fact, some patients may experience fatigue or drowsiness as a side effect.
It's crucial to inform patients about potential side effects to manage expectations and promote adherence to treatment.
If a patient experiences unexpected energy changes while taking hydroxychloroquine, it's essential to report this to their healthcare provider for further evaluation.
Rationale for Choice C:
Hydroxychloroquine is generally recommended to be taken with food or milk to reduce potential gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting.
Taking it on an empty stomach could increase the risk of these side effects, which could impact medication adherence and effectiveness.
Rationale for Choice D:
Retinal damage is the most serious adverse effect of hydroxychloroquine. It can lead to irreversible vision loss if not detected and managed early.
Patients taking hydroxychloroquine must undergo regular eye examinations to monitor for any signs of retinal toxicity.
Early detection and prompt discontinuation of the medication can often prevent permanent vision loss.
It's crucial for nurses to educate patients about this potential risk and emphasize the importance of regular eye exams.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice B rationale:
Benign tumors typically grow in the wrong place or at the wrong time. This is a key distinguishing feature of benign tumors compared to normal cells. Normal cells have precise mechanisms that control their growth, ensuring they divide and multiply only when and where they are needed. Benign tumors, however, have disruptions in these regulatory mechanisms, leading to abnormal growth patterns. This means they may grow in locations where they don't belong or continue to grow even when they are no longer needed.
Here's a detailed explanation of why the other choices are incorrect:
Choice A:
Benign tumors have not lost their cellular regulation from contact inhibition. Contact inhibition is a process that stops normal cells from growing when they come into contact with other cells. Benign tumors still maintain this ability, which helps to limit their growth and prevent them from spreading to other tissues.
Choice C:
Benign tumors do not grow through invasion of other tissue. Invasion is a hallmark feature of malignant tumors (cancers). Benign tumors, on the other hand, typically grow as encapsulated masses, meaning they are surrounded by a well-defined border that separates them from surrounding tissues. They do not infiltrate or invade surrounding structures.
Choice D:
Anaplasia refers to the loss of differentiation and resemblance to the parent cells, which is a characteristic of malignant tumors, not benign tumors. Benign tumors still maintain a degree of differentiation, meaning they retain some of the characteristics of the normal cells from which they originated.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Uncompensated Respiratory Acidosis is characterized by a low pH (less than 7.35) and a high pCO2 (greater than 45 mmHg). In this case, the pH is slightly elevated (7.46), making this option less likely.
While the pCO2 is elevated (46 mmHg), the body has begun to compensate, as evidenced by the elevated HCO3 (29 mEq/L). This partial compensation does not align with an uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
Choice B rationale:
Compensated Metabolic Acidosis would present with a normal pH (7.35-7.45) due to full compensation by the respiratory system. In this case, the pH is slightly elevated (7.46), which is not consistent with full compensation.
Additionally, the HCO3 is elevated (29 mEq/L), which is characteristic of metabolic alkalosis, not acidosis.
Choice C rationale:
Partially Compensated Metabolic Alkalosis is the most likely interpretation based on the ABG results. The pH is elevated (7.46), indicating alkalosis.
The HCO3 is also elevated (29 mEq/L), which is the primary cause of metabolic alkalosis.
The pCO2 is elevated (46 mmHg), which is a compensatory mechanism to try to normalize the pH. However, the compensation is not complete, as the pH is still slightly elevated.
This partial compensation is consistent with partially compensated metabolic alkalosis.
Choice D rationale:
Partially Compensated Respiratory Acidosis would present with a low pH (less than 7.35) and an elevated pCO2 (greater than 45 mmHg).
The HCO3 would also be elevated, but to a lesser degree than in metabolic alkalosis, as it's a secondary compensatory mechanism.
In this case, the pH is slightly elevated (7.46), making respiratory acidosis less likely.
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