A patient with HIV-1 is curious as to why gabapentin is included in their medication regimen, despite not having a history of seizures. What would be the most appropriate response from the nurse?
You are at risk for seizures due to fungal infections.
I have no idea why you would be taking this drug.
Gabapentin can also function as an antidepressant.
This medication aids in alleviating pain from nerve irritation.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
It is not accurate to state that the patient is at risk for seizures due to fungal infections. While fungal infections can occur in individuals with HIV-1, they are not a primary cause of seizures in this population.
Linking fungal infections directly to seizure risk without clear evidence could cause unnecessary anxiety in the patient. It's important to provide accurate and relevant information to patients.
Choice B rationale:
Responding with "I have no idea why you would be taking this drug" is unprofessional and unhelpful.
Nurses are expected to have a basic understanding of the medications their patients are taking and to be able to provide education and support.
It's essential to demonstrate knowledge and confidence when interacting with patients.
Choice C rationale:
While gabapentin can have mood-elevating effects in some individuals, it is not primarily used as an antidepressant. Mentioning this potential side effect without clarifying the primary purpose of the medication could mislead the patient. It's crucial to prioritize the main indication for the medication to avoid confusion.
Choice D rationale:
This is the most appropriate response because it accurately explains the primary reason for prescribing gabapentin to this patient.
Gabapentin is commonly used to treat neuropathic pain, which is pain caused by nerve damage.
HIV-1 can often lead to neuropathic pain, making gabapentin a valuable treatment option in this population.
Providing clear and accurate information about medication purpose builds trust and understanding between the nurse and the patient.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
It is incorrect to state that the client will not be able to bathe with a central vascular access device.
While certain precautions are necessary to keep the device dry and clean during bathing, bathing is still possible and important for maintaining hygiene.
The nurse should provide specific instructions on how to protect the device during bathing, such as using a waterproof cover or avoiding direct water contact.
Choice B rationale:
It is inaccurate to claim that there is no risk of infection associated with a central vascular access device, even when sterile technique is used during insertion.
Infection is a serious potential complication, and it's crucial to emphasize ongoing infection prevention measures to the client.
The nurse should educate the client about signs and symptoms of infection to watch for and the importance of prompt reporting to healthcare providers.
Choice C rationale:
It is not always necessary to wear a sling on the arm with the central vascular access device.
The need for a sling may depend on the type of device, the client's condition, and the healthcare provider's recommendations.
If a sling is indicated, the nurse should provide instructions on proper use and care to maintain comfort and prevent complications.
Choice D rationale:
This is the correct statement to include in the client's teaching.
Thorough cleaning of the connections prior to accessing the device is essential for preventing infection.
The client should be empowered to advocate for themselves and ensure that all providers follow proper infection control procedures.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Tolerance to the opiate medication is developing. This is the most likely explanation for why the client's pain is no longer being controlled by the same dose of medication. Tolerance is a physiological adaptation that occurs with repeated exposure to opioids, leading to a decrease in their effectiveness over time. This means that the client's body is becoming less responsive to the medication, and a higher dose is needed to achieve the same level of pain relief.
Choice B rationale:
There is likely a history of addiction. While it is possible that the client has a history of addiction, this is not the most likely explanation for why the medication is no longer controlling the pain. Addiction is a complex condition that is characterized by compulsive drug seeking and use, despite negative consequences. It is not simply a matter of tolerance developing.
Choice C rationale:
The client is opiate naive. This means that the client has not previously been exposed to opioids. While opiate-naive clients may be more sensitive to the effects of opioids, they are also more likely to experience side effects, such as nausea and vomiting. The fact that the client has been receiving the same dose of medication for 2 days without experiencing side effects suggests that they are not opiate naive.
Choice D rationale:
Physical dependence. Physical dependence is a state of adaptation that occurs with repeated exposure to opioids, leading to withdrawal symptoms if the medication is abruptly stopped. However, physical dependence does not necessarily mean that the medication is no longer effective in controlling pain.
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