A patient with HIV-1 is curious as to why gabapentin is included in their medication regimen, despite not having a history of seizures. What would be the most appropriate response from the nurse?
You are at risk for seizures due to fungal infections.
I have no idea why you would be taking this drug.
Gabapentin can also function as an antidepressant.
This medication aids in alleviating pain from nerve irritation.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
It is not accurate to state that the patient is at risk for seizures due to fungal infections. While fungal infections can occur in individuals with HIV-1, they are not a primary cause of seizures in this population.
Linking fungal infections directly to seizure risk without clear evidence could cause unnecessary anxiety in the patient. It's important to provide accurate and relevant information to patients.
Choice B rationale:
Responding with "I have no idea why you would be taking this drug" is unprofessional and unhelpful.
Nurses are expected to have a basic understanding of the medications their patients are taking and to be able to provide education and support.
It's essential to demonstrate knowledge and confidence when interacting with patients.
Choice C rationale:
While gabapentin can have mood-elevating effects in some individuals, it is not primarily used as an antidepressant. Mentioning this potential side effect without clarifying the primary purpose of the medication could mislead the patient. It's crucial to prioritize the main indication for the medication to avoid confusion.
Choice D rationale:
This is the most appropriate response because it accurately explains the primary reason for prescribing gabapentin to this patient.
Gabapentin is commonly used to treat neuropathic pain, which is pain caused by nerve damage.
HIV-1 can often lead to neuropathic pain, making gabapentin a valuable treatment option in this population.
Providing clear and accurate information about medication purpose builds trust and understanding between the nurse and the patient.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A serum sodium level of 134 mEq/L (134 mmol/L) is mildly low, but this level of hyponatremia is not typically associated with significant cognitive impairment.
Symptoms of hyponatremia, such as confusion, lethargy, and seizures, usually occur when sodium levels are 125 mEq/L or lower.
However, it's important to monitor this patient for any changes in cognitive status as hyponatremia can worsen and lead to more severe symptoms.
Choice C rationale:
A patient who underwent an open cholecystectomy two days ago may experience some cognitive impairment due to the effects of anesthesia and pain medications.
However, this type of impairment is usually temporary and resolves within a few days.
It's important to assess for cognitive impairment in this patient, but it is not the most urgent priority.
Choice D rationale:
A 32-year-old patient with a 20-pack-year history of smoking is at risk for cognitive impairment due to the long-term effects of smoking on the brain.
However, this risk is typically not as immediate as the risk of cognitive impairment following a stroke.
It's important to educate this patient about the risks of smoking and encourage smoking cessation, but it is not the most urgent priority in terms of cognitive assessment.
Choice B rationale:
An 88-year-old patient who had a hemorrhagic stroke three days ago is at the highest risk for cognitive impairment among the given options.
Hemorrhagic stroke involves bleeding in the brain, which can damage brain tissue and lead to cognitive deficits.
The risk of cognitive impairment is particularly high in older adults, as they may have less cognitive reserve to compensate for the damage caused by the stroke.
Early assessment and intervention for cognitive impairment are crucial for optimizing recovery and quality of life in stroke patients.
Prompt evaluation for cognitive impairment is essential to identify any deficits and initiate appropriate interventions to support the patient's cognitive function and recovery.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale for Choice A:
A shift to the left in the white blood cell (WBC) count indicates an increased presence of immature neutrophils, known as bands. This is a hallmark sign of infection, as the body is rapidly producing and releasing these cells to fight off invading pathogens.
Prompt notification of the primary health care provider is crucial to initiate timely antibiotic therapy, if indicated. Early intervention with appropriate antibiotics can effectively combat the infection, prevent its progression, and potentially avert serious complications.
Delaying antibiotic treatment can allow the infection to worsen, potentially leading to sepsis, septic shock, or other life- threatening conditions.
Rationale for Choice B:
While informing the client about the significance of a shift to the left is important for education and understanding, it does not address the immediate need for medical intervention.
The priority action is to involve the primary health care provider for prompt assessment and potential initiation of antibiotic therapy.
Rationale for Choice C:
Documenting findings and continuing to monitor the client's condition is essential for ongoing assessment and evaluation, but it does not constitute a proactive intervention to address the underlying infection.
Documentation alone does not initiate treatment, and monitoring without intervention risks allowing the infection to progress.
Rationale for Choice D:
Protective isolation is not routinely indicated for clients with a shift to the left in their WBC count unless there is a specific concern for transmission of a highly contagious infection.
The decision to implement protective isolation measures would be based on the client's overall clinical presentation and potential infectious risks, as determined by the primary health care provider.
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