A patient is scheduled to receive 2000 ml of Normal Saline over 24 hours. How much fluid should be administered per hour?
73 ml/hour
84 ml/hour
83 ml/hour
63 ml/hour
The Correct Answer is C
Rationale:
Step 1: Divide the total volume of fluid (2000 ml) by the total time in hours (24 hours). Step 2: Perform the calculation: 2000 ml ÷ 24 hours = 83.33 ml/hour.
Step 3: Round the answer to the nearest whole number, as fluid administration is typically measured in whole milliliters.
The correct answer is 83 ml/hour.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Prednisone is a corticosteroid that suppresses the body's natural production of cortisol. Cortisol is a hormone that is essential for life, and it plays a role in many important bodily functions, including:
Regulating blood sugar levels Maintaining blood pressure Reducing inflammation Responding to stress
When a person takes prednisone for a long period of time, their body begins to rely on the medication to provide cortisol. If the medication is stopped suddenly, the body cannot produce enough cortisol on its own, which can lead to a life-threatening condition called adrenal insufficiency.
Adrenal insufficiency can cause a variety of symptoms, including: Extreme fatigue
Weakness Dizziness Nausea Vomiting Abdominal pain Confusion
Loss of consciousness
To prevent adrenal insufficiency, it is important to taper off prednisone slowly over a period of time. This allows the body to gradually adjust to producing cortisol on its own.
Here are some additional details about why prednisone should never be discontinued abruptly: The risk of adrenal insufficiency is highest when prednisone has been taken for more than 3 weeks. The longer a person has been taking prednisone, the slower the taper should be.
It is important to follow the tapering instructions provided by the healthcare provider.
If a person experiences any symptoms of adrenal insufficiency, they should seek medical attention immediately.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale for Choice A:
A shift to the left in the white blood cell (WBC) count indicates an increased presence of immature neutrophils, known as bands. This is a hallmark sign of infection, as the body is rapidly producing and releasing these cells to fight off invading pathogens.
Prompt notification of the primary health care provider is crucial to initiate timely antibiotic therapy, if indicated. Early intervention with appropriate antibiotics can effectively combat the infection, prevent its progression, and potentially avert serious complications.
Delaying antibiotic treatment can allow the infection to worsen, potentially leading to sepsis, septic shock, or other life- threatening conditions.
Rationale for Choice B:
While informing the client about the significance of a shift to the left is important for education and understanding, it does not address the immediate need for medical intervention.
The priority action is to involve the primary health care provider for prompt assessment and potential initiation of antibiotic therapy.
Rationale for Choice C:
Documenting findings and continuing to monitor the client's condition is essential for ongoing assessment and evaluation, but it does not constitute a proactive intervention to address the underlying infection.
Documentation alone does not initiate treatment, and monitoring without intervention risks allowing the infection to progress.
Rationale for Choice D:
Protective isolation is not routinely indicated for clients with a shift to the left in their WBC count unless there is a specific concern for transmission of a highly contagious infection.
The decision to implement protective isolation measures would be based on the client's overall clinical presentation and potential infectious risks, as determined by the primary health care provider.
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