A client has been receiving the same dose of IV opiate for 2 days to manage post-surgical pain. The client reports the drug is no longer controlling the pain. What does the nurse suspect?
Tolerance to the opiate medication is developing
There is likely a history of addiction
The client is opiate naive
Physical dependence
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Tolerance to the opiate medication is developing. This is the most likely explanation for why the client's pain is no longer being controlled by the same dose of medication. Tolerance is a physiological adaptation that occurs with repeated exposure to opioids, leading to a decrease in their effectiveness over time. This means that the client's body is becoming less responsive to the medication, and a higher dose is needed to achieve the same level of pain relief.
Choice B rationale:
There is likely a history of addiction. While it is possible that the client has a history of addiction, this is not the most likely explanation for why the medication is no longer controlling the pain. Addiction is a complex condition that is characterized by compulsive drug seeking and use, despite negative consequences. It is not simply a matter of tolerance developing.
Choice C rationale:
The client is opiate naive. This means that the client has not previously been exposed to opioids. While opiate-naive clients may be more sensitive to the effects of opioids, they are also more likely to experience side effects, such as nausea and vomiting. The fact that the client has been receiving the same dose of medication for 2 days without experiencing side effects suggests that they are not opiate naive.
Choice D rationale:
Physical dependence. Physical dependence is a state of adaptation that occurs with repeated exposure to opioids, leading to withdrawal symptoms if the medication is abruptly stopped. However, physical dependence does not necessarily mean that the medication is no longer effective in controlling pain.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Incorrect. Deep-breathing exercises could potentially worsen stridor. Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound caused by a partial obstruction of the upper airway. Deep breathing can increase airflow through the narrowed airway, making the stridor more pronounced and potentially worsening the obstruction. In severe cases, it could lead to complete airway obstruction and respiratory distress.
Risk of aggravation: Deep-breathing exercises could aggravate the underlying cause of stridor, such as laryngeal edema or vocal cord dysfunction, by increasing inflammation or muscle tension in the airway.
Delay in definitive treatment: Focusing on deep-breathing exercises might delay more definitive interventions, such as intubation, which might be necessary to secure the airway and prevent respiratory failure.
Choice B rationale:
Incorrect. While albuterol nebulizer therapy can be helpful for bronchospasm, it is not the first-line treatment for stridor. Stridor is typically caused by an upper airway obstruction, and albuterol primarily targets the lower airways (bronchioles).
Limited effectiveness: Albuterol might not be effective in reducing stridor caused by upper airway obstruction, as it does not directly address the narrowing of the airway.
Potential for adverse effects: Albuterol can cause tachycardia, tremors, and anxiety, which could further complicate the patient's condition.
Choice C rationale:
Not the most immediate action. While calling a Rapid Response might be necessary if the patient's condition deteriorates, the first priority is to secure the airway and ensure adequate ventilation.
Time-consuming: Activating a Rapid Response team can take several minutes, and the patient's condition might not allow for that delay.
Choice D rationale:
Prioritizes airway management: Intubation is the most effective way to secure the airway and ensure adequate ventilation in a patient with stridor. It bypasses the obstruction and allows for controlled delivery of oxygen and ventilation.
Addresses potential for deterioration: Stridor can rapidly progress to complete airway obstruction, so prompt preparation for intubation is crucial to prevent respiratory failure.
Involves the primary healthcare provider: Consulting the primary health care provider ensures timely decision-making, appropriate medication administration (such as sedatives or paralytics for intubation), and coordination of care.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Administering an antipyretic would lower the client's fever, but it would not address the underlying cause of the sepsis. Antipyretics can mask important signs and symptoms of infection, making it more difficult to diagnose and treat the sepsis. It's important to identify the causative organism of sepsis to initiate appropriate antibiotic therapy.
Therefore, obtaining cultures to identify the causative organism is the priority action.
Choice B rationale:
Obtaining specified cultures is the most important action for a client with possible sepsis because it allows for the identification of the causative organism.
This information is essential for selecting the appropriate antibiotic therapy. Cultures should be obtained as soon as possible, before antibiotics are administered.
Choice C rationale:
While administering antibiotics is an important part of the treatment for sepsis, it is not the first action that the nurse should take.
Antibiotics should be administered after the causative organism has been identified.
Administering antibiotics before cultures are obtained can make it more difficult to identify the causative organism.
Choice D rationale:
Placing the client in isolation is important to prevent the spread of infection, but it is not the first action that the nurse should take.
The priority is to identify the causative organism and initiate appropriate treatment. The client can be placed in isolation after cultures have been obtained.
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