A client has been receiving the same dose of IV opiate for 2 days to manage post-surgical pain. The client reports the drug is no longer controlling the pain. What does the nurse suspect?
Tolerance to the opiate medication is developing
There is likely a history of addiction
The client is opiate naive
Physical dependence
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Tolerance to the opiate medication is developing. This is the most likely explanation for why the client's pain is no longer being controlled by the same dose of medication. Tolerance is a physiological adaptation that occurs with repeated exposure to opioids, leading to a decrease in their effectiveness over time. This means that the client's body is becoming less responsive to the medication, and a higher dose is needed to achieve the same level of pain relief.
Choice B rationale:
There is likely a history of addiction. While it is possible that the client has a history of addiction, this is not the most likely explanation for why the medication is no longer controlling the pain. Addiction is a complex condition that is characterized by compulsive drug seeking and use, despite negative consequences. It is not simply a matter of tolerance developing.
Choice C rationale:
The client is opiate naive. This means that the client has not previously been exposed to opioids. While opiate-naive clients may be more sensitive to the effects of opioids, they are also more likely to experience side effects, such as nausea and vomiting. The fact that the client has been receiving the same dose of medication for 2 days without experiencing side effects suggests that they are not opiate naive.
Choice D rationale:
Physical dependence. Physical dependence is a state of adaptation that occurs with repeated exposure to opioids, leading to withdrawal symptoms if the medication is abruptly stopped. However, physical dependence does not necessarily mean that the medication is no longer effective in controlling pain.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Skin and mucous membranes are the most effective and crucial barriers to infection. They provide a continuous physical barrier that prevents pathogens from entering the body. Here's a detailed explanation of their protective mechanisms:
1. Physical Barrier:
Skin: The outermost layer of skin, the epidermis, is composed of tightly packed cells that are difficult for pathogens to penetrate. It's also covered in a layer of sebum, an oily substance that helps to repel water and microorganisms.
Mucous membranes: These moist linings cover the openings of the body, such as the nose, mouth, eyes, and digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts. They produce mucus, a sticky substance that traps pathogens and prevents them from entering the body. Mucus also contains enzymes and antibodies that can kill certain pathogens.
2. Chemical Barrier:
Skin and mucous membranes secrete a variety of substances that have antimicrobial properties. These include: Sebum: Contains fatty acids that can kill bacteria and fungi.
Sweat: Contains salt and lysozyme, an enzyme that can break down bacterial cell walls. Saliva: Contains enzymes that can break down food and kill bacteria.
Gastric acid: The highly acidic environment of the stomach kills most pathogens that are ingested.
3. Immune Barrier:
Skin and mucous membranes are home to a diverse community of microbes, known as the microbiome. These microbes play an important role in protecting against infection by competing with pathogens for resources and space.
Mucous membranes contain specialized immune cells, such as M cells and dendritic cells, that can recognize pathogens and initiate an immune response.
In contrast, the other choices are less effective barriers to infection:
Choice B: Gastrointestinal secretions, such as gastric acid, do play a role in preventing infection, but they are not as effective as skin and mucous membranes. Pathogens can still enter the body through the digestive tract, even in the presence of gastric acid.
Choice C: Colonization by host bacteria can actually help to protect against infection by competing with pathogens. However, it is not a primary barrier to infection.
Choice D: Inflammatory processes are a response to infection, not a barrier to it. They occur after pathogens have already entered the body.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Uncompensated Respiratory Acidosis is characterized by a low pH (less than 7.35) and a high pCO2 (greater than 45 mmHg). In this case, the pH is slightly elevated (7.46), making this option less likely.
While the pCO2 is elevated (46 mmHg), the body has begun to compensate, as evidenced by the elevated HCO3 (29 mEq/L). This partial compensation does not align with an uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
Choice B rationale:
Compensated Metabolic Acidosis would present with a normal pH (7.35-7.45) due to full compensation by the respiratory system. In this case, the pH is slightly elevated (7.46), which is not consistent with full compensation.
Additionally, the HCO3 is elevated (29 mEq/L), which is characteristic of metabolic alkalosis, not acidosis.
Choice C rationale:
Partially Compensated Metabolic Alkalosis is the most likely interpretation based on the ABG results. The pH is elevated (7.46), indicating alkalosis.
The HCO3 is also elevated (29 mEq/L), which is the primary cause of metabolic alkalosis.
The pCO2 is elevated (46 mmHg), which is a compensatory mechanism to try to normalize the pH. However, the compensation is not complete, as the pH is still slightly elevated.
This partial compensation is consistent with partially compensated metabolic alkalosis.
Choice D rationale:
Partially Compensated Respiratory Acidosis would present with a low pH (less than 7.35) and an elevated pCO2 (greater than 45 mmHg).
The HCO3 would also be elevated, but to a lesser degree than in metabolic alkalosis, as it's a secondary compensatory mechanism.
In this case, the pH is slightly elevated (7.46), making respiratory acidosis less likely.
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