A client has been receiving the same dose of IV opiate for 2 days to manage post-surgical pain. The client reports the drug is no longer controlling the pain. What does the nurse suspect?
Tolerance to the opiate medication is developing
There is likely a history of addiction
The client is opiate naive
Physical dependence
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Tolerance to the opiate medication is developing. This is the most likely explanation for why the client's pain is no longer being controlled by the same dose of medication. Tolerance is a physiological adaptation that occurs with repeated exposure to opioids, leading to a decrease in their effectiveness over time. This means that the client's body is becoming less responsive to the medication, and a higher dose is needed to achieve the same level of pain relief.
Choice B rationale:
There is likely a history of addiction. While it is possible that the client has a history of addiction, this is not the most likely explanation for why the medication is no longer controlling the pain. Addiction is a complex condition that is characterized by compulsive drug seeking and use, despite negative consequences. It is not simply a matter of tolerance developing.
Choice C rationale:
The client is opiate naive. This means that the client has not previously been exposed to opioids. While opiate-naive clients may be more sensitive to the effects of opioids, they are also more likely to experience side effects, such as nausea and vomiting. The fact that the client has been receiving the same dose of medication for 2 days without experiencing side effects suggests that they are not opiate naive.
Choice D rationale:
Physical dependence. Physical dependence is a state of adaptation that occurs with repeated exposure to opioids, leading to withdrawal symptoms if the medication is abruptly stopped. However, physical dependence does not necessarily mean that the medication is no longer effective in controlling pain.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
This statement is accurate. Early Lyme disease (Stage I) is typically treated with oral antibiotics for 14 to 21 days. This is often effective in clearing the infection and preventing further complications.
Choice B rationale:
This statement is also accurate. A red rash that may resemble a bull's eye is a common early symptom of Lyme disease. It often appears at the site of the tick bite, typically within 3 to 30 days after the bite.
Choice C rationale:
This statement is incorrect. While Lyme disease can be serious if not treated, it is rarely fatal. Most people who are treated for Lyme disease recover fully. However, if left untreated, it can lead to chronic health problems, such as arthritis, neurological problems, and heart issues.
Choice D rationale:
This statement is accurate. Taking precautions against tick bites is essential for preventing Lyme disease. Ticks are most active during the warmer months, so it's crucial to be vigilant about tick prevention during the spring, summer, and fall.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale for Choice A:
While it's important for the primary healthcare provider to be informed about the CD4+ results, it's not the first action the nurse should take. The priority is to implement appropriate infection control measures to protect the patient, other patients, and healthcare staff.
CD4+ cell count is a crucial indicator of the patient's immune status. A count of 180/mm is significantly low, suggesting a weakened immune system and increased vulnerability to infections. However, informing the provider alone doesn't directly address the immediate need for infection control.
Rationale for Choice B:
Airborne Precautions are specifically used for patients with known or suspected airborne infections, such as tuberculosis, measles, or varicella. These precautions involve the use of negative pressure rooms and N95 respirators.
In this case, the patient's TB skin test was negative, indicating no evidence of active tuberculosis infection. Implementing Airborne Precautions unnecessarily could lead to excessive resource utilization and potential stigmatization of the patient.
Rationale for Choice C:
Droplet Precautions are used for patients with infections that can be spread through large respiratory droplets, such as influenza, pertussis, or meningococcal meningitis. These precautions involve the use of masks and eye protection.
While the patient's symptoms of fever, night sweats, and severe cough could be consistent with a droplet-spread infection, there's no definitive evidence to support this at the present time. Initiating Droplet Precautions without a clear indication could also lead to unnecessary resource use and potential anxiety for the patient.
Rationale for Choice D:
Standard Precautions are the foundation of infection control and should be used for all patients, regardless of their known or suspected infection status. These precautions include hand hygiene, use of personal protective equipment (PPE) when indicated, and safe handling of sharps and bodily fluids.
By implementing Standard Precautions, the nurse can effectively minimize the risk of transmission of pathogens, protecting both the patient and other individuals in the healthcare setting. This is the most appropriate first action to ensure a safe and appropriate level of care.
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