The mother of a 2-day-old infant girl expresses concern about a "flea bite" type rash on her daughter's body. The nurse identifies a pink papular rash with vesicles superimposed over the thorax, back, buttocks, and abdomen. Which explanation should the nurse offer?
The rash is due to distended oil glands that will resolve in a few weeks.
This rash is characteristic of a medication reaction.
The healthcare provider is being notified about the rash.
This is a common newborn rash that will resolve after several days.
The Correct Answer is D
The rash described, pink papular rash with vesicles, is consistent with erythema toxicum neonatorum, which is a common skin condition that affects up to 50% of newborns. It typically appears within the first few days of life and resolves without treatment within 5-7 days. The rash is benign and does not require any specific treatment or intervention.
The rash is not due to distended oil glands or a medication reaction, and there is no indication in the scenario that the healthcare provider needs to be notified about the rash. Erythema toxicum neonatorum is a self-limited condition that resolves on its own, so reassurance and education for the parents are appropriate interventions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Incorrect- Hip arthroplasty is a scheduled procedure, and there is no immediate indication of a critical condition that requires urgent attention.
B) Correct- Postoperative hemorrhage is a serious complication, and an older client receiving packed red blood cells may be experiencing active bleeding. This situation requires immediate assessment and intervention.
C) Incorrect- While continuous bladder irrigation requires monitoring, it is not as urgent as a potential postoperative hemorrhage.
D) Incorrect- Pain management is important, but it is not as urgent as assessing a client who may be experiencing active bleeding.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Incorrect- Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to treat conditions such as edema and hypertension. It does not directly relate to the client's history of gout or the risk of calcium kidney stones.
B) Incorrect- Low-dose aspirin is often used for its antiplatelet effects to prevent cardiovascular events. It does not directly relate to the client's history of gout or the risk of calcium kidney stones.
C) Correct- Allopurinol is a medication used to treat gout by reducing the production of uric acid in the body. However, allopurinol can also increase the risk of forming calcium oxalate kidney stones, which is the type of kidney stone mentioned in the client's history. Calcium oxalate stones are the most common type of kidney stone, and they are composed primarily of calcium and oxalate. In this case, the client has a history of gout and is prescribed allopurinol. The nurse should bring the client's prescription for allopurinol to the healthcare provider's attention because
it has the potential to contribute to the formation of kidney stones, which could exacerbate the client's existing condition.
D) Incorrect- Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat hypertension and heart failure. It does not directly relate to the client's history of gout or the risk of calcium kidney stones.
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