The mother of a 2-day-old infant girl expresses concern about a "flea bite" type rash on her daughter's body. The nurse identifies a pink papular rash with vesicles superimposed over the thorax, back, buttocks, and abdomen. Which explanation should the nurse offer?
The rash is due to distended oil glands that will resolve in a few weeks.
This rash is characteristic of a medication reaction.
The healthcare provider is being notified about the rash.
This is a common newborn rash that will resolve after several days.
The Correct Answer is D
The rash described, pink papular rash with vesicles, is consistent with erythema toxicum neonatorum, which is a common skin condition that affects up to 50% of newborns. It typically appears within the first few days of life and resolves without treatment within 5-7 days. The rash is benign and does not require any specific treatment or intervention.
The rash is not due to distended oil glands or a medication reaction, and there is no indication in the scenario that the healthcare provider needs to be notified about the rash. Erythema toxicum neonatorum is a self-limited condition that resolves on its own, so reassurance and education for the parents are appropriate interventions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A,B,C,D,E
Explanation
A) This is because the client is experiencing an allergic reaction to piperacillin, which can be life-threatening. The nurse should stop the infusion immediately to prevent further exposure to the drug and assess vital signs to monitor for signs of anaphylaxis, such as hypotension, tachycardia, wheezes, or stridor.
B) Assessing vital signs is a priority to determine the severity of the reaction and the client's overall condition.
C) The nurse should contact the healthcare provider to report the situation and obtain orders for treatment, such as antihistamines, corticosteroids, or epinephrine.
D) The nurse should initiate an adverse event report to document the incident and follow the facility's protocol for reporting medication errors.
E) The nurse should also document the reaction to the drug in the client's chart and notify the pharmacy to avoid future administration of piperacillin or related antibiotics.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Her fasting 1-hour glucose screening level, which was done 1 week prior, is 164 mg/dl. (9.1 mmol/L) Her 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test results reveal a fasting blood sugar of 168 (9.3 mmol/L) and a two-hour postprandial of 220 mg/dL (12.2 mmol/L).
The client has gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM), which is a condition that affects some pregnant women and causes high blood sugar levels. This is bad during pregnancy because it can increase the risk of complications for both the mother and the baby, such as preeclampsia, macrosomia, birth trauma, neonatal hypoglycemia, and congenital anomalies. The client needs to follow a diet and exercise plan to control her blood sugar levels and prevent further complications. She may also need to take insulin injections or oral medications if diet and exercise are not enough. The client should monitor her blood sugar levels regularly and report any abnormal results to her health care provider. The client should also have regular prenatal visits and ultrasounds to check the growth and development of the baby.
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