The practical nurse (PN) reports that a client who has a fingerstick glucose of 35 mg/dL (1.94 mmol/L) is alert and diaphoretic. Which action should the charge nurse take?
Reference Ranges
- Glucose [Reference Range: 0 to 50 years: 74 to 106 mg/dL (4.1 to 5.9 mmol/L)]
Collect a blood sample for hemoglobin Alc.
Give the client a glass of orange juice.
Notify the healthcare provider.
Assess client for polyuria and polyphagia.
The Correct Answer is B
In this situation, the client has a fingerstick glucose level of 35 mg/dL (1.94 mmol/L) and is alert but diaphoretic. The charge nurse should take the following action:
Give the client a glass of orange juice.
A glucose level of 35 mg/dL (1.94 mmol/L) is considered significantly low (hypoglycemia), and the client's symptoms of diaphoresis indicate that the low glucose level is likely causing the symptoms. Providing the client with a glass of orange juice or another source of fast-acting carbohydrate is appropriate to quickly raise the blood sugar level and alleviate the symptoms of hypoglycemia.
Collecting a blood sample for hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) is not necessary in this acute situation. HbA1c reflects the average blood glucose level over the past 2-3 months and is used to assess long-term glycemic control in clients with diabetes. It does not provide immediate information or guide immediate interventions for acute hypoglycemia.
Notifying the healthcare provider is not the first action to take in this situation. The client's low glucose level can be promptly addressed by administering a source of fast-acting carbohydrate, such as orange juice. If the client's symptoms persist or worsen despite appropriate intervention, or if there are other concerning factors, then notifying the healthcare provider would be appropriate.
Assessing the client for polyuria (excessive urination) and polyphagia (excessive hunger) is important in the overall management of diabetes, but it is not the immediate action to take in this acute situation of hypoglycemia. The priority at this time is to address the low blood sugar level and relieve the client's symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","E","F"]
Explanation
Correct- This statement indicates a misunderstanding about the relationship between acute stress disorder (ASD) and post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). While both are related to traumatic events, ASD is considered an initial reaction that typically resolves within three days to four weeks, whereas PTSD involves symptoms persisting for more than a month. The nurse should provide education on the different timelines and criteria for these disorders.
Incorrect- This statement reflects a proactive approach to managing symptoms and stress through holistic methods like meditation. There's no need for follow-up teaching here.
Incorrect- This statement shows the client's recognition of the potential benefits of therapy in managing their thoughts and emotions. It indicates their willingness to engage in effective coping strategies.
Incorrect- This statement reflects an understanding that their response to the traumatic event is not uncommon and that others may have similar reactions. It's a valid perspective on shared experiences during challenging times.
Correct- The statement "This diagnosis means that I am crazy" reflects a common misconception about mental health diagnoses. The term "crazy" is stigmatizing and does not accurately represent the nature of mental health conditions. The nurse should offer reassurance that a diagnosis of ASD does not define a person's overall mental state and emphasize the importance of seeking help without judgment.
Correct- The statement "I will probably need to be on medication for the rest of my life" implies a sense of hopelessness or a narrow perspective about treatment options. While medication might be part of the treatment plan for some individuals, it's important to emphasize that treatment is personalized and can include a combination of therapies, coping strategies, and lifestyle adjustments. The nurse should encourage an open discussion about treatment goals and possibilities.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice d. Explain to the parents that anger is a common response to grief.
Choice A rationale:
Referring the parents to the chaplain for grief counseling can be beneficial, but it may not address the immediate emotional outburst and the need for understanding their feelings.
Choice B rationale:
Telling the parents that blaming each other will not change the situation might be true, but it can come across as dismissive and may not provide the emotional support they need at that moment.
Choice C rationale:
Assuring the parents that a terminal diagnosis is inevitable does not address their current emotional state and may seem insensitive to their grief and anger.
Choice D rationale:
Explaining to the parents that anger is a common response to grief helps them understand their emotions and provides immediate emotional support, making it the best intervention in this situation.
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