The mother of a 7-month-old brings the infant to the clinic because the skin in the diaper area is excoriated and red, but there are no blisters or bleeding. The mother reports no evidence of watery stools. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement?
Instruct the mother to change the child's diaper more often.
Ask the mother to decrease the infant's intake of fruits for 24 hours.
Encourage the mother to apply lotion with each diaper change.
Tell the mother to cleanse with soap and water at each diaper change.
The Correct Answer is A
The excoriated and red skin in the diaper area suggests the presence of diaper dermatitis, which is commonly caused by prolonged exposure to moisture and irritants such as urine and feces. Changing the diaper more frequently helps to minimize the exposure to these irritants and promotes better skin hygiene.
Asking the mother to decrease the infant's intake of fruits for 24 hours is not necessary unless there is evidence of diarrhea or specific dietary concerns. Fruits are generally a healthy part of an infant's diet and do not directly cause diaper dermatitis.
Encouraging the mother to apply lotion with each diaper change may not be recommended in this case, as lotions and creams can further trap moisture and exacerbate the condition. It is best to keep the area clean and dry.
Telling the mother to cleanse with soap and water at each diaper change may be too harsh for the infant's sensitive skin. Plain water or mild, fragrance-free wipes are typically sufficient for cleaning the diaper area. Soap can be drying and irritating to the skin, so it is generally not necessary unless there is a specific indication.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Incorrect - Developing new screening protocols is important, but it doesn't directly indicate that the program has prevented diseases. Screening protocols might catch diseases but don't prevent them.
B) Incorrect - Clients receiving rehabilitation indicates they already had disease complications, which is not a primary prevention outcome.
C) Correct- An improvement in average client scores on risk factor knowledge tests suggests that the primary prevention program has successfully educated clients about behaviors and practices that can help prevent sexually transmitted diseases. This improvement indicates that clients have a better understanding of the risks and protective measures, which is a key indicator of program effectiveness.
D) Incorrect - Diagnosing clients early in their disease process is related to early detection (secondary prevention), not primary prevention.
Correct Answer is A,B,C,D,E
Explanation
A) This is because the client is experiencing an allergic reaction to piperacillin, which can be life-threatening. The nurse should stop the infusion immediately to prevent further exposure to
the drug and assess vital signs to monitor for signs of anaphylaxis, such as hypotension, tachycardia, wheezes, or stridor.
B) Assessing vital signs is a priority to determine the severity of the reaction and the client's overall condition.
C) The nurse should contact the healthcare provider to report the situation and obtain orders for treatment, such as antihistamines, corticosteroids, or epinephrine.
D) The nurse should initiate an adverse event report to document the incident and follow the facility's protocol for reporting medication errors.
E) The nurse should also document the reaction to the drug in the client's chart and notify the pharmacy to avoid future administration of piperacillin or related antibiotics.
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