The nurse implements a primary prevention program for sexually transmitted diseases in a nurse-managed health center. Which outcome Indicates that the program was effective?
New screening protocols were developed, validated, and implemented.
Clients who incurred disease complications promptly received rehabilitation.
Average client scores improved on specific risk factor knowledge tests.
More than half of at-risk clients were diagnosed early in their disease process.
The Correct Answer is C
A) Incorrect - Developing and implementing new screening protocols does not directly indicate the effectiveness of a primary prevention program. It might indicate improved detection, but not necessarily prevention.
B) Incorrect - This outcome relates to secondary prevention (rehabilitation after disease complications) rather than primary prevention.
C) Correct- An improvement in average client scores on risk factor knowledge tests suggests that the primary prevention program has successfully educated clients about behaviors and practices that can help prevent sexually transmitted diseases. This improvement indicates that clients have a better understanding of the risks and protective measures, which is a key indicator of program effectiveness.
D) Incorrect - Diagnosing clients early in their disease process is an outcome of early detection (secondary prevention), not primary prevention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Incorrect- Genetically inherited disorders of family members: While a family history of certain disorders might provide some insight, it is not typically the primary cause of elevated serum magnesium levels in an older adult.
B) Correct- Elevated serum magnesium levels are commonly associated with chronic laxative use, especially those containing magnesium-based compounds. Laxatives can lead to excessive magnesium intake, causing hypermagnesemia.
C. Incorrect- Smoking is not a common cause of elevated serum magnesium levels.
D. Incorrect- While dietary sources can contribute to magnesium intake, chronic laxative use is a more likely cause in this context.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Given the client's symptoms of constant chest pressure that is unrelieved with rest, along with the client's appearance of anxiety, pallor, and diaphoresis, it indicates a high likelihood of an acute coronary event, such as a myocardial infarction (heart attack). In this situation, the nurse should prioritize immediate actions that address the potential cardiac emergency.
Aspirin is an essential medication in the initial management of acute coronary syndrome, including unstable angina and myocardial infarction. It helps to inhibit platelet aggregation and reduce the risk of clot formation in the coronary arteries. The chewable form of aspirin is recommended because it allows for more rapid absorption.
While evaluating extremities for perfusion, pulse volume, and pitting edema is important in assessing the client's overall cardiovascular status, it is not the immediate next step when faced with a suspected acute coronary event.
Securing client consent for coronary angiography and percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is a relevant step in the management of unstable angina and myocardial infarction, but it is not the immediate action to be taken in the emergency department. The client requires stabilization and initial medical interventions before procedural consent can be obtained.
Placing an indwelling urinary catheter and instituting strict intake and output measurements is not a priority action in this situation. The focus should be on addressing the potential acute coronary event and ensuring the client's cardiac stability. Urinary catheterization and monitoring of intake and output can be considered later, if necessary.
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