A female client is taking alendronate, a bisphosphonate, for postmenopausal osteoporosis. The client tells the nurse that she is experiencing jaw pain. How should the nurse respond?

Determine how the client is administering the medication.

Advise the client to gargle with warm salt water twice daily.

Report the client's jaw pain to the healthcare provider.

Confirm that this is a common symptom of osteoporosis.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Jaw pain in a client taking alendronate, a bisphosphonate, for postmenopausal osteoporosis may be a sign of a rare but serious side effect called osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ). Therefore, the nurse should respond by: Report the client's jaw pain to the healthcare provider.

Jaw pain can be an indication of ONJ, a condition characterized by the death of jawbone tissue. It is important to notify the healthcare provider so that further evaluation and appropriate management can be initiated. The healthcare provider will determine the best course of action, which may include referral to a specialist for further assessment and treatment.

Determining how the client is administering the medication is not the immediate concern in this situation. While it is important to ensure that the client is following proper administration instructions for alendronate, addressing the jaw pain takes precedence.

Advising the client to gargle with warm salt water twice daily may not be sufficient or appropriate for managing jaw pain related to alendronate use. The client needs a comprehensive assessment by the healthcare provider to determine the cause of the jaw pain and provide appropriate interventions.

Confirming that jaw pain is a common symptom of osteoporosis is not accurate. While osteoporosis can lead to bone pain, jaw pain specifically associated with bisphosphonate use is more likely to be related to ONJ and requires further evaluation and management

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The client with Addison's disease is experiencing weakness, confusion, and dehydration, which can be indicative of an adrenal crisis. The low sodium level (129 mEq/L) and low glucose level (54 mg/dl) further support this suspicion. An acute viral infection can trigger an adrenal crisis in individuals with Addison's disease.

Intravenous hydrocortisone, a glucocorticoid, is the treatment of choice for managing an adrenal crisis. It helps to replenish cortisol levels and stabilize the client's condition.

Hydrocortisone helps in restoring the body's stress response and regulating electrolyte and glucose levels.

A broad-spectrum antibiotic may be necessary if there is evidence of a bacterial infection, but it does not directly address the symptoms associated with Addison's disease.

Regular insulin is used for managing high blood glucose levels in conditions such as diabetes, but in this case, the client has low glucose levels, so insulin is not the appropriate intervention.

Potassium chloride is a medication used to treat low potassium levels (hypokalemia), but the client's potassium level is within the reference range (5.3 mEq/L). Therefore, potassium chloride is not indicated in this situation.

A. Tell the client to discuss the medication side effects with the healthcare provider. B. Tell the client that the medication's side effects will most likely dissipate over time. C. Inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication. D. Remind the client that feeling better is the therapeutic effect of the medication. E. None F. None

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Discuss with provider → Correct. The nurse supports client autonomy and ensures safe management. The provider can adjust the dose, switch medications, or address side effects appropriately.
B. Side effects dissipate → Incorrect. Some antidepressant side effects improve, but others persist. This statement minimizes the client’s concerns and is not therapeutic.
C. Gradual tapering → Incorrect. While tapering is necessary, the nurse should not instruct discontinuation independently. This is the provider’s role.
D. Feeling better is therapeutic effect → Incorrect. Although true, this response dismisses the client’s concern about side effects and does not address the request to discontinue.

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A female client is taking alendronate, a bisphosphonate, for postmenopausal osteoporosis. The client tells the nurse that she is experiencing jaw pain. How should the nurse respond?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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