A female client is taking alendronate, a bisphosphonate, for postmenopausal osteoporosis. The client tells the nurse that she is experiencing jaw pain. How should the nurse respond?
Determine how the client is administering the medication.
Advise the client to gargle with warm salt water twice daily.
Report the client's jaw pain to the healthcare provider.
Confirm that this is a common symptom of osteoporosis.
The Correct Answer is C
Jaw pain in a client taking alendronate, a bisphosphonate, for postmenopausal osteoporosis may be a sign of a rare but serious side effect called osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ). Therefore, the nurse should respond by: Report the client's jaw pain to the healthcare provider.
Jaw pain can be an indication of ONJ, a condition characterized by the death of jawbone tissue. It is important to notify the healthcare provider so that further evaluation and appropriate management can be initiated. The healthcare provider will determine the best course of action, which may include referral to a specialist for further assessment and treatment.
Determining how the client is administering the medication is not the immediate concern in this situation. While it is important to ensure that the client is following proper administration instructions for alendronate, addressing the jaw pain takes precedence.
Advising the client to gargle with warm salt water twice daily may not be sufficient or appropriate for managing jaw pain related to alendronate use. The client needs a comprehensive assessment by the healthcare provider to determine the cause of the jaw pain and provide appropriate interventions.
Confirming that jaw pain is a common symptom of osteoporosis is not accurate. While osteoporosis can lead to bone pain, jaw pain specifically associated with bisphosphonate use is more likely to be related to ONJ and requires further evaluation and management
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","E","F"]
Explanation
Correct- This statement indicates a misunderstanding about the relationship between acute stress disorder (ASD) and post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). While both are related to traumatic events, ASD is considered an initial reaction that typically resolves within three days to four weeks, whereas PTSD involves symptoms persisting for more than a month. The nurse should provide education on the different timelines and criteria for these disorders.
Incorrect- This statement reflects a proactive approach to managing symptoms and stress through holistic methods like meditation. There's no need for follow-up teaching here.
Incorrect- This statement shows the client's recognition of the potential benefits of therapy in managing their thoughts and emotions. It indicates their willingness to engage in effective coping strategies.
Incorrect- This statement reflects an understanding that their response to the traumatic event is not uncommon and that others may have similar reactions. It's a valid perspective on shared experiences during challenging times.
Correct- The statement "This diagnosis means that I am crazy" reflects a common misconception about mental health diagnoses. The term "crazy" is stigmatizing and does not accurately represent the nature of mental health conditions. The nurse should offer reassurance that a diagnosis of ASD does not define a person's overall mental state and emphasize the importance of seeking help without judgment.
Correct- The statement "I will probably need to be on medication for the rest of my life" implies a sense of hopelessness or a narrow perspective about treatment options. While medication might be part of the treatment plan for some individuals, it's important to emphasize that treatment is personalized and can include a combination of therapies, coping strategies, and lifestyle adjustments. The nurse should encourage an open discussion about treatment goals and possibilities.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Her fasting 1-hour glucose screening level, which was done 1 week prior, is 164 mg/dl. (9.1 mmol/L) Her 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test results reveal a fasting blood sugar of 168 (9.3 mmol/L) and a two-hour postprandial of 220 mg/dL (12.2 mmol/L).
The client has gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM), which is a condition that affects some pregnant women and causes high blood sugar levels. This is bad during pregnancy because it can increase the risk of complications for both the mother and the baby, such as preeclampsia, macrosomia, birth trauma, neonatal hypoglycemia, and congenital anomalies. The client needs to follow a diet and exercise plan to control her blood sugar levels and prevent further complications. She may also need to take insulin injections or oral medications if diet and exercise are not enough. The client should monitor her blood sugar levels regularly and report any abnormal results to her health care provider. The client should also have regular prenatal visits and ultrasounds to check the growth and development of the baby.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today