The nurse implements a primary prevention program for sexually transmitted diseases in a nurse-managed health center. Which outcome Indicates that the program was effective?

New screening protocols were developed, validated, and implemented.

Clients who incurred disease complications promptly received rehabilitation.

Average client scores improved on specific risk factor knowledge tests.

More than half at risk clients were diagnosed early in the disease process

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A)   Incorrect - Developing new screening protocols is important, but it doesn't directly indicate that the program has prevented diseases. Screening protocols might catch diseases but don't prevent them.
B)   Incorrect - Clients receiving rehabilitation indicates they already had disease complications, which is not a primary prevention outcome.
C)   Correct- An improvement in average client scores on risk factor knowledge tests suggests that the primary prevention program has successfully educated clients about behaviors and practices that can help prevent sexually transmitted diseases. This improvement indicates that clients have a better understanding of the risks and protective measures, which is a key indicator of program effectiveness.
D)   Incorrect - Diagnosing clients early in their disease process is related to early detection (secondary prevention), not primary prevention.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The client's labs indicate that she has a positive result for group B Streptococcus (GBS) and hepatitis surface antigen, and she is also identified as rubella non-immune.

Ampicillin is the recommended antibiotic for intrapartum prophylaxis against GBS infection to reduce the risk of transmission to the newborn. Administering ampicillin intravenously would help protect the newborn from potential GBS-related complications. Transfusion of packed red blood cells is not indicated based on the hemoglobin and hematocrit values provided. The client's hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, although lower than the reference range, are not critically low and do not necessarily require a blood transfusion.

Injecting hepatitis B immune globulin is not the appropriate intervention in this case. The client is positive for hepatitis surface antigen, indicating active infection, and requires appropriate medical management, which may include antiviral treatment.

Administering the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy. Vaccination for rubella is typically recommended prior to conception or postpartum to prevent congenital rubella syndrome.

A. Review transcutaneous bilirubin levels with a bilirubinometer. B. Observe and palpate newborn's breast tissue for enlargement. C. Assess for signs of fluid retention and bilateral pedal edema. D. Explain to mother that the finding is due to increased androgen.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) Incorrect- Reviewing transcutaneous bilirubin levels is unrelated to the presence of an enlarged clitoris. Bilirubin levels are typically assessed to monitor jaundice in newborns.
B) Incorrect- Observing and palpating breast tissue for enlargement is not relevant to the condition of salt-wasting congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Breast tissue enlargement would not be associated with this hormonal disorder.
C) Incorrect- Assessing for signs of fluid retention and bilateral pedal edema is important for monitoring for other conditions, but it is not relevant to the enlarged clitoris seen in this specific scenario.
D) Correct- Salt-wasting congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a genetic disorder that results in a deficiency of certain enzymes required for cortisol and aldosterone production. This deficiency leads to an overproduction of androgens, which can cause virilization of female external genitalia. The enlarged clitoris is a result of increased androgen levels. Explaining this finding to the mother provides her with accurate information about the condition and its effects on the infant's anatomy.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

The nurse implements a primary prevention program for sexually transmitted diseases in a nurse-managed health center. Which outcome Indicates that the program was effective?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

When assessing a newborn girl with salt-wasting congenital adrenal hyperplasia due to 21 hydroxylase deficiency, the nurse notes that the infant has an enlarged clitoris. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client who is having gastrointestinal (GI) difficulties is undergoing diagnostic procedures. The client asks the nurse about the difference between ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease. Which information should the nurse offer?

The nurse is triaging several children as they present to the emergency room after a school bus accident. Which child requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

A client develops urticaria on the trunk and neck shortly after a secondary infusion of piperacillin is initiated. In which, order should the nurse implement these interventions? (Arrange the actions in order of priority, with the highest priority first, and least priority last or at the bottom.)

The nurse has completed the diet teaching of a client who is being discharged following treatment of a leg wound. A high protein diet is encouraged to promote wound healing. Which lunch choice by the client indicates that the teaching was effective?

An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is assigned to a client with flu-like symptoms who has been placed on droplet precautions. The UAP requests a change in assignment, stating she has not yet been fitted for a particulate filter mask. Which action should the nurse take?

The nurse is performing tracheostomy care for a client when a code blue is called for another client on the unit who experiences a cardiopulmonary arrest. Which action should the nurse take?

Exhibits Click to mark whether the following are signs and symptoms of cerebral edema, respiratory distress, or both.