A client who delivered vaginally 2 days ago states that she wants to resume using her diaphragm for birth control. What information should the nurse share with her?
The diaphragm should be inserted 2 to 4 hours before intercourse.
The most effective form of contraception is a diaphragm.
Vaseline lubricant can be used when inserting the diaphragm.
The diaphragm must be refitted after childbirth.
The Correct Answer is D
A) Incorrect- This is true; the diaphragm should be inserted before sexual activity. However, the main concern in this scenario is the need for refitting after childbirth.
B) Incorrect- This statement is not accurate. While the diaphragm is a form of contraception, it is not considered one of the most effective methods. Long-acting reversible contraceptives
(LARCs) like intrauterine devices (IUDs) and hormonal implants are among the most effective methods.
C) Incorrect- Vaseline lubricant can be used when inserting the diaphragm: Vaseline and other oil-based lubricants can weaken the latex or cause damage to the diaphragm. Water-based lubricants are recommended for use with diaphragms.
D) Correct- The diaphragm is a barrier contraceptive device that is inserted into the vagina before sexual intercourse to prevent pregnancy. However, its effectiveness can be compromised by changes in the anatomy of the vaginal canal, cervix, and pelvic structures, such as those that occur after childbirth. After vaginal childbirth, the pelvic structures may undergo changes, including stretching and possible loss of tone. These changes can affect the fit and position of the diaphragm, leading to decreased contraceptive efficacy. Therefore, it's important for women who have given birth to have their diaphragm refitted by a healthcare provider before resuming its use.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) This can be done if initial non-pharmacological interventions do not relieve symptoms, but it is not the first step.
B) Monitoring blood pressure is important, but it is secondary to removing the stimulus causing the dysreflexia.
C) Incorrect- While education is important for long-term management, the client is currently experiencing symptoms that need immediate attention. The priority is to assess and address the current symptoms.
D) The client is likely experiencing autonomic dysreflexia, characterized by a sudden and severe increase in blood pressure, flushing, headache, and other symptoms triggered by a noxious stimulus below the level of injury. The first step in managing autonomic dysreflexia is to identify and eliminate the triggering stimulus. For clients with a Foley catheter, a common cause of autonomic dysreflexia is bladder distention due to a kinked or obstructed catheter. Relieving any kinks or obstructions in the Foley tubing can immediately alleviate the symptoms.
Correct Answer is A,B,C,D,E
Explanation
A) This is because the client is experiencing an allergic reaction to piperacillin, which can be life-threatening. The nurse should stop the infusion immediately to prevent further exposure to the drug and assess vital signs to monitor for signs of anaphylaxis, such as hypotension, tachycardia, wheezes, or stridor.
B) Assessing vital signs is a priority to determine the severity of the reaction and the client's overall condition.
C) The nurse should contact the healthcare provider to report the situation and obtain orders for treatment, such as antihistamines, corticosteroids, or epinephrine.
D) The nurse should initiate an adverse event report to document the incident and follow the facility's protocol for reporting medication errors.
E) The nurse should also document the reaction to the drug in the client's chart and notify the pharmacy to avoid future administration of piperacillin or related antibiotics.
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