An older client is admitted to the intensive care unit unconscious after several days of vomiting and diarrhea.
Vital Signs
Heart Rate-beats/minute- 110 Respirations - breathes/minute- 28 Blood Pressure – mmHG- 80/60
Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
Ph- 7.34
PaCO2- 34 mmHg
HCO3- 20 mmol/L
pO2- 90 mmHg
Electrolytes Results
Sodium
130 mEq/L(mmol/L) Potassium
2.5 mEq/L (mmol/L) Chloride
95 mEq/L (mmol/L)
Reference Range:
Sodium [136 to 145 mEq/L (136 to 145 mmol/L)]
Potassium [3.5 to 5 mEq/L (3.5 to 5 mmol/L)]
Chloride [98 to 106 mEq/L (98 to 106 mmol/L)]
PaCO2 [35 to 45 mm Hg]
HCO, [21 to 28 mEq/L (21 to 28 mmol/L)] PaO2 [80 to 100 mm Hg)
The nurse inserts a urinary catheter and obtains a scant amount of dark amber output. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? (Please scroll and view each tab's information in the client's medical record before selecting the answer.)
Initiate continuous dopamine infusion at 2 mcg/kg/minute.
Administer promethazine 25 mg slow intravenous (IV) push every 4 hours.
Begin potassium chloride 10 mEq over 1 hour per secondary infusion.
Give a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride 1,000 ml over 30 minutes.
The Correct Answer is D
A) Incorrect - Initiating continuous dopamine infusion is not a priority in this situation. The client's low blood pressure and electrolyte imbalances require more immediate attention.
B) Incorrect - Administering promethazine addresses symptoms like nausea and vomiting, but it doesn't address the primary issue of hypovolemia and low blood pressure.
C) Incorrect - Administering potassium chloride without addressing the fluid deficit can be dangerous and may lead to further electrolyte imbalances.
D) Correct- The client's vital signs and laboratory results indicate hypovolemia (low blood pressure, low sodium, and low potassium). The immediate priority is to address the fluid deficit and correct the electrolyte imbalances. Administering a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) will help increase intravascular volume and improve blood pressure, as well as correct the electrolyte imbalances to some extent.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice d. Explain to the parents that anger is a common response to grief.
Choice A rationale:
Referring the parents to the chaplain for grief counseling can be beneficial, but it may not address the immediate emotional outburst and the need for understanding their feelings.
Choice B rationale:
Telling the parents that blaming each other will not change the situation might be true, but it can come across as dismissive and may not provide the emotional support they need at that moment.
Choice C rationale:
Assuring the parents that a terminal diagnosis is inevitable does not address their current emotional state and may seem insensitive to their grief and anger.
Choice D rationale:
Explaining to the parents that anger is a common response to grief helps them understand their emotions and provides immediate emotional support, making it the best intervention in this situation.
Correct Answer is ["400"]
Explanation
To calculate the mL/hr rate for the infusion pump, we can use the following formula: mL/hr = (Total volume to be infused in mL) / (Time in hours)
In this case, the total volume to be infused is 200 mL, and the infusion time is 30 minutes, which is equal to 0.5 hours.
mL/hr = 200 mL / 0.5 hours mL/hr = 400 mL/hr
Therefore, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 400 mL/hr.
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