A client has received a prescription for orlistat for weight and nutrition management. In addition to the medication, the client plans to take a multivitamin. Which teaching should the nurse provide?
Multivitamins are contraindicated during treatment with weight-control medications such as orlistat.
As a nutritional supplement, orlistat already contains all the recommended daily vitamins and minerals.
Be sure to take the multivitamin and the medication at least two hours apart for best absorption and effectiveness.
Following a well-balanced diet is a much healthier approach to good nutrition than depending on a multivitamin.
The Correct Answer is C
Orlistat is a weight-control medication that works by inhibiting the absorption of dietary
fats in the intestines. It can also interfere with the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins (such as vitamins A, D, E, and K) and beta-carotene. Therefore, it is important for the client to take a multivitamin supplement to ensure an adequate intake of these essential nutrients.
However, it is recommended to take the multivitamin and orlistat at least two hours apart. This is because orlistat can potentially interfere with the absorption of the
fat-soluble vitamins in the multivitamin if taken simultaneously. By spacing them apart, the client can optimize the absorption of both the medication and the multivitamin.
Multivitamins are not contraindicated during treatment with orlistat. In fact, they are often recommended to compensate for potential nutrient deficiencies.
While orlistat may contain some vitamins and minerals, it does not provide all the recommended daily amounts. Therefore, additional supplementation may be necessary. While following a well-balanced diet is indeed important for good nutrition, it does not address the need for specific nutrient supplementation when taking orlistat. Both a balanced diet and appropriate vitamin supplementation can be beneficial in this situation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]
Explanation
A) Incorrect - Red blood cell count (RBC) is not directly relevant to the assessment of infection and its spread.
B) Correct- Core body temperature can be an indicator of systemic infection and needs to be reported to the healthcare provider for assessment and intervention.
C) Correct- Swollen lymph nodes in the groin suggest local and regional lymphatic involvement, indicating possible spread of infection. This finding needs further assessment and intervention.
D) Incorrect - The location of the initial intravenous (IV) site is not directly relevant to the assessment of infection and its spread.
E) Correct- An elevated white blood cell count (WBC) can indicate an inflammatory response to infection. This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and treatment.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Incorrect- Observing for swelling at the fracture site is important for assessing the client's musculoskeletal condition, but it is not the priority intervention in this situation. The absence of spontaneous respirations and palpable carotid pulse indicates cardiac arrest, and immediate intervention is needed.
B) Incorrect- Analyzing the cardiac rhythm in another lead is not the first priority when the client is in cardiac arrest. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) should be initiated immediately to restore circulation.
C) Incorrect- Obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram is not the initial intervention in a client in cardiac arrest. CPR and defibrillation (if indicated) are the immediate actions to provide circulation and oxygenation to the vital organs.
D) Correct- The absence of spontaneous respirations and palpable carotid pulse indicates cardiac arrest. In this situation, immediate initiation of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is critical to provide circulation and oxygenation to the vital organs. Chest compressions are the initial step to address cardiac arrest and ensure blood flow to the body.
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