A female client is admitted with complaints of abdominal pain, loss of appetite, and a weight loss of 25 pounds (11 kg) in the last four months. During the admission assessment, the client tells the nurse that she has no interest in playing cards with her friends anymore and feels worthless most days. Which nursing problem should the nurse address first?

Anxiety as evidenced by abdominal complaints secondary to depression.

Imbalanced nutrition as evidenced by 25 pound (11 kg) weight loss in four months.

Chronic low self-esteem as evidenced by feelings of worthlessness.

Risk for self-directed violence as evidenced by feelings of hopelessness.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

The client's statement of feeling worthless most days and having no interest in activities she previously enjoyed indicates a potential risk for self-directed violence, including self-harm or suicidal ideation. These signs are significant and require immediate attention and intervention by the nurse.

Assessing and addressing the client's risk for self-directed violence is of utmost importance to ensure her safety and well-being. The nurse should initiate a thorough assessment of the client's mental health, including assessing for any suicidal ideation, intent, or plans. It is crucial to establish a supportive and non-judgmental environment for the client to express her feelings and concerns.

The nurse should collaborate with the healthcare team to develop an appropriate care plan that may involve interventions such as close observation, involving a mental health professional, implementing safety measures, and providing emotional support.

While addressing other nursing problems, such as anxiety, imbalanced nutrition, and chronic low self-esteem, is important, the immediate concern is the client's risk for self-directed violence due to her feelings of hopelessness.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is ["A","E","F"]

Explanation

Correct- This statement indicates a misunderstanding about the relationship between acute stress disorder (ASD) and post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). While both are related to traumatic events, ASD is considered an initial reaction that typically resolves within three days to four weeks, whereas PTSD involves symptoms persisting for more than a month. The nurse should provide education on the different timelines and criteria for these disorders.
Incorrect- This statement reflects a proactive approach to managing symptoms and stress through holistic methods like meditation. There's no need for follow-up teaching here.
Incorrect- This statement shows the client's recognition of the potential benefits of therapy in managing their thoughts and emotions. It indicates their willingness to engage in effective coping strategies.
Incorrect- This statement reflects an understanding that their response to the traumatic event is not uncommon and that others may have similar reactions. It's a valid perspective on shared experiences during challenging times.
Correct- The statement "This diagnosis means that I am crazy" reflects a common misconception about mental health diagnoses. The term "crazy" is stigmatizing and does not accurately represent the nature of mental health conditions. The nurse should offer reassurance that a diagnosis of ASD does not define a person's overall mental state and emphasize the importance of seeking help without judgment.
Correct- The statement "I will probably need to be on medication for the rest of my life" implies a sense of hopelessness or a narrow perspective about treatment options. While medication might be part of the treatment plan for some individuals, it's important to emphasize that treatment is personalized and can include a combination of therapies, coping strategies, and lifestyle adjustments. The nurse should encourage an open discussion about treatment goals and possibilities.

A. Administer a prescribed PRN dose of hydralazine. B. Assess the client's blood pressures every 15 minutes. C. Teach the client to recognize the symptoms of dysreflexia. D. Relieve any kinks or obstruction in the client's Foley tubing.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) This can be done if initial non-pharmacological interventions do not relieve symptoms, but it is not the first step.
B) Monitoring blood pressure is important, but it is secondary to removing the stimulus causing the dysreflexia.
C) Incorrect- While education is important for long-term management, the client is currently experiencing symptoms that need immediate attention. The priority is to assess and address the current symptoms.
D) The client is likely experiencing autonomic dysreflexia, characterized by a sudden and severe increase in blood pressure, flushing, headache, and other symptoms triggered by a noxious stimulus below the level of injury. The first step in managing autonomic dysreflexia is to identify and eliminate the triggering stimulus. For clients with a Foley catheter, a common cause of autonomic dysreflexia is bladder distention due to a kinked or obstructed catheter. Relieving any kinks or obstructions in the Foley tubing can immediately alleviate the symptoms.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is ["A","E","F"]

Explanation

Following morning care, a client with a C-5 spinal cord injury who is sitting in a wheelchair becomes flushed and complains of a headache. Which intervention should the nurse implementfirst?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a client with the sexually transmitted infection (STI) genital herpes. The client reports having sex with multiple partners. Which response should the nurse provide

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The healthcare provider prescribes dopamine 2 mcg/kg/min intravenously (IV) for client who weighs 60 kg. The IV bag contains dopamine 200 mg in dextrose 5% in water (DW) 250 mL. The nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver how many mL/hour? (Enter numerical value only.)

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A client has received a prescription for orlistat for weight and nutrition management. In addition to the medication, the client plans to take a multivitamin. Which teaching should the nurse provide?

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