The charge nurse is making assignments for one practical nurse (PN) and three registered nurses (RN) who are caring for neurologically compromised clients. Which client with which change in status is best to assign to the PN?

Viral meningitis whose temperature changed from 101° F (38.3°C) to 102° F (38.9° C).

Myxedema coma whose blood pressure changed from 80/50 mm Hg to 70/40 mm Hg.

Diabetic ketoacidosis whose Glasgow Coma Scale score changed from 10 to 7.

Subdural hematoma whose blood pressure changed from 150/80 mm Hg to 170/60 mm Hg.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A)   Correct- Viral meningitis is an inflammation of the meninges (the protective membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord) caused by a viral infection. While it can be serious, it is generally less severe than bacterial meningitis. Monitoring the client's temperature is an important aspect of care, as changes in temperature can indicate the progression of the illness or the effectiveness of interventions. A temperature increase from 101°F to 102°F is a subtle change but may still require close monitoring and symptom management. The practical nurse (PN) is capable of monitoring vital signs, including temperature, and reporting any changes to the registered nurse (RN) or healthcare provider. It is within the PN's scope of practice to assess and report changes in vital signs and general condition. The other scenarios involve more complex clinical situations that may require the expertise of registered nurses.
B)   Incorrect- Myxedema coma is a severe form of hypothyroidism and is considered a medical emergency. Managing and assessing a client with myxedema coma requires advanced assessment, critical thinking, and interventions that are typically within the scope of registered nurses.
C)   Incorrect- Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a complex condition that requires frequent monitoring of blood glucose levels, electrolytes, vital signs, and assessment of the level of consciousness. The change in the Glasgow Coma Scale score indicates a neurological deterioration that requires immediate attention and intervention, making it suitable for a registered nurse.
D)   Incorrect- A subdural hematoma is a serious neurological condition that requires close monitoring of vital signs and neurological status. The change in blood pressure indicates a potential change in intracranial pressure and should be managed by registered nurses with expertise in neurological care.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Acute kidney injury (AKI) can have significant impacts on the client's fluid and electrolyte balance. Mannitol, a diuretic, is commonly used to promote diuresis and increase urine

output in cases of AKI. However, it is essential to assess the client's hemodynamic status and overall condition before administering mannitol.

Obtaining vital signs (such as blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature) helps evaluate the client's baseline status and monitor for any changes that may occur after administering mannitol. It is particularly important to assess blood pressure as mannitol can potentially cause hypotension as a side effect.

Assessing breath sounds is also crucial because pulmonary edema can occur as a complication of AKI. Mannitol administration may exacerbate this condition. Therefore, assessing breath sounds allows the nurse to monitor for signs of fluid overload, such as crackles or wheezes.

Collecting a clean catch urine specimen may be necessary for diagnostic purposes to assess kidney function and determine the presence or severity of acute kidney injury. However, obtaining vital signs and assessing breath sounds should be the first nursing intervention before administering any medication, including mannitol, to ensure the client's safety and monitor for any potential adverse effects.

A. Observe for swelling at the fracture site. B. Analyze the cardiac rhythm in another lead. C. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram. D. Begin chest compressions at 100/minute.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The correct answer is choice D: Begin chest compressions at 100/minute.

Choice A rationale:

Observing for swelling at the fracture site is not immediately relevant in this emergency situation. The priority is to address the lack of pulse and respiration.

Choice B rationale:

Analyzing the cardiac rhythm in another lead is unnecessary when the patient has no pulse and is not breathing. Immediate life-saving measures are required.

Choice C rationale:

Obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram is not the priority in this scenario. The patient needs immediate resuscitation efforts.

Choice D rationale:

Beginning chest compressions at 100/minute is the correct intervention. The absence of a carotid pulse and spontaneous respirations indicates cardiac arrest, and chest compressions are essential to maintain circulation and oxygenation until further help arrives.

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The charge nurse is making assignments for one practical nurse (PN) and three registered nurses (RN) who are caring for neurologically compromised clients. Which client with which change in status is best to assign to the PN?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client with possible acute kidney injury (AKI) is admitted to the hospital and mannitol is prescribed as a fluid challenge. Prior to carrying out this prescription, what intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

When the nurse enters the room of a male client who was admitted for a fractured femur, his cardiac monitor displays a normal sinus rhythm (NSR), but he has no spontaneous respirations and his carotid pulse is not palpable. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse has completed the diet teaching of a client who is being discharged following treatment of a leg wound. A high protein diet is encouraged to promote wound healing. Which lunch choice by the client Indicates that the teaching was effective?

A client with cancer is admitted to the oncology unit and tells the nurse that he is in the hospital for palliative care measures. The nurse notes that the client's admission prescriptions include radiation therapy. Which action should the nurse implement?

The nurse notices that a male client is particularly delusional one afternoon. He begins to pace the floor and appears to be losing control of himself. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

A client with a history of unstable angina presents to the emergency department with constant chest pressure that is unrelieved with rest. The client appears anxious, pale, and diaphoretic. After obtaining the client's vital signs, which action should the nurse take next?

An older client is taken to the clinic by the spouse, who appears extremely worried. The spouse reports to the nurse that the client started to not make any sense and asked to visit a brother who has been dead for many years. Which action(s) should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)