One hour after arriving on the postoperative unit, a woman who received spinal anesthesia 5 hours ago is complaining of severe abdominal incisional pain. Her vital signs are: temperature 99° F (37.2° C), heart rate 110 beats/minute, respiratory rate 30 breaths/minute and blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. The client's skin is pale, and the surgical dressing is dry and Intact. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to Implement?

Provide pillow for splinting.

Assess the IV site for patency.

Place in a high Fowler position.

Administer an IV analgesic.

None

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

The correct answer is Choice D

Choice A rationale: Splinting with a pillow may reduce discomfort during movement or coughing by stabilizing the incision site, but it does not address acute postoperative pain with sympathetic overdrive. The elevated heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure suggest a stress response mediated by catecholamines. Without analgesia, nociceptive signals continue to activate the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis. While splinting is supportive, it lacks the pharmacologic efficacy needed to blunt nociceptive transmission at the spinal or supraspinal level.

Choice B rationale: Assessing IV patency is a procedural prerequisite for medication administration but not a therapeutic intervention in itself. It does not directly address the pathophysiology of acute pain or the sympathetic surge evidenced by tachycardia and hypertension. Pain activates ascending pathways via A-delta and C fibers, requiring pharmacologic blockade. IV access assessment is necessary but secondary to the urgent need for analgesia to prevent complications like hypoxia, hyperventilation, or delayed recovery.

Choice C rationale: High Fowler positioning may improve diaphragmatic excursion and reduce pulmonary complications, but it does not mitigate visceral or incisional pain. In fact, increased intra-abdominal pressure from upright posture may exacerbate pain at the surgical site. Pain perception involves central sensitization and peripheral nociceptor activation, which are unaffected by positioning. The client’s pale skin and elevated vitals indicate systemic distress requiring analgesic intervention, not postural adjustment. Thus, this choice lacks direct analgesic benefit.

Choice D rationale: IV analgesics act rapidly to inhibit nociceptive transmission at the spinal cord and brainstem levels. Opioids bind to mu receptors, reducing neurotransmitter release and hyperpolarizing neurons, thereby dampening pain signals. This intervention directly targets the physiologic cause of elevated heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure. Normal heart rate is 60–100 bpm, respiratory rate 12–20 breaths/min, and BP <120/80 mmHg. Prompt analgesia prevents complications like hypoxia, delayed healing, and neuroendocrine stress

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is ["A","E","F"]

Explanation

A) Correct- The client's statement suggests a misconception about the progression from acute stress disorder (ASD) to post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). While ASD is an initial response to trauma, it doesn't necessarily indicate a high risk for developing PTSD. The nurse should provide education about the differences and the various factors that influence the development of PTSD.

B) Incorrect- This statement reflects the client's proactive approach to using holistic approaches like meditation to manage symptoms. Meditation and other relaxation techniques can be beneficial for managing stress and anxiety related to the traumatic event.

C) Incorrect- This statement reflects the client's motivation to learn how to manage their thoughts better through therapy. Therapy can be highly effective for addressing trauma-related distress and helping clients develop coping strategies.

D) Incorrect- This statement reflects the client's recognition that their response is shared by many people in similar situations. Validating the client's experience and normalizing their feelings can be therapeutic.

E) Correct- This statement reflects a common misconception and stigma associated with mental health diagnoses. The nurse should reassure the client that a diagnosis of acute stress disorderdoes not equate to being "crazy" and provide information about the nature of the disorder and available treatments.

F) Correct- The statement implies a potential pessimistic outlook on treatment. While medication might be part of the treatment plan, it's important to emphasize that treatment approaches are individualized. Encouraging an open dialogue about various treatment options, including therapy and coping strategies, is essential.

A. Review transcutaneous bilirubin levels with a bilirubinometer. B. Observe and palpate newborn's breast tissue for enlargement. C. Assess for signs of fluid retention and bilateral pedal edema. D. Explain to the mother that the finding is due to increased androgen.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) Incorrect- Reviewing transcutaneous bilirubin levels is unrelated to the presence of an enlarged clitoris. Bilirubin levels are typically assessed to monitor jaundice in newborns.
B) Incorrect- Observing and palpating breast tissue for enlargement is not relevant to the condition of salt-wasting congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Breast tissue enlargement would not be associated with this hormonal disorder.
C) Incorrect- Assessing for signs of fluid retention and bilateral pedal edema is important for monitoring for other conditions, but it is not relevant to the enlarged clitoris seen in this specific scenario.
D) Correct- Salt-wasting congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a genetic disorder that results in a deficiency of certain enzymes required for cortisol and aldosterone production. This deficiency leads to an overproduction of androgens, which can cause virilization of female external genitalia. The enlarged clitoris is a result of increased androgen levels. Explaining this finding to the mother provides her with accurate information about the condition and its effects on the infant's anatomy.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is ["A","E","F"]

Explanation

When assessing a newborn girl with salt-wasting congenital adrenal hyperplasia due to 21 hydroxylase deficiency, the nurse notes that the infant has an enlarged clitoris. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

When caring for a client with full-thickness burns to both lower extremities, which assessment finding(s) warrant immediate intervention by the nurse? (Select all that apply.)

The nurse is caring for a client with the sexually transmitted infection (STI) genital herpes. The client reports having sex with multiple partners. Which response should the nurse provide

Which breakfast selection should the nurse recommend for a 16-year-old with diarrhea?

The nurse is preparing to send a client to the cardiac catheterization lab for an angioplasty. Which client report is most important for the nurse to explore further prior to the start of the procedure?

A 3-year-old boy was successfully toilet trained prior to his admission to the hospital for injuries sustained from a fall. His parents are very concerned that the child has regressed in his toileting behaviors. Which information should the nurse provide to the parents?

In evaluating the effectiveness of a postoperative client's intermittent pneumatic compression devices, which assessment is most important for the nurse to complete?

Patient Data What other treatments might be helpful for this client? Select all that apply.