After an older client receives treatment for drug toxicity, the healthcare provider prescribes a 24-hour creatinine clearance test. Prior to starting the urine collection, the nurse notes that the client's serum creatinine is 0.3 mg/dL (22.9 μmol/L). Which action should the nurse implement?
Creatinine [Reference Range: 0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL (44 to 97 μmol/L)]
Initiate the urine collection as prescribed.
Evaluate the client's serum BUN level.
Notify the healthcare provider of the results.
Assess the client for signs of hypokalemia.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale: Initiating the urine collection without reporting the low serum creatinine is inappropriate. A value of 0.3 mg/dL is below the reference range and may indicate significant muscle wasting or severe malnutrition.
Choice B rationale: Evaluating the BUN level provides information about hydration and renal perfusion, but it does not address the immediate clinical significance of an abnormally low creatinine level in an older adult client.
Choice C rationale: The nurse must notify the provider because a creatinine level of 0.3 mg/dL is abnormally low. In older adults, this often reflects low muscle mass, which significantly impacts how drug dosages are calculated.
Choice D rationale: Assessing for hypokalemia is not directly indicated by a low creatinine level. While electrolyte monitoring is important in drug toxicity, it is not the priority action linked to this specific lab finding.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Incorrect- Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to treat conditions such as edema and hypertension. It does not directly relate to the client's history of gout or the risk of calcium kidney stones.
B) Incorrect- Low-dose aspirin is often used for its antiplatelet effects to prevent cardiovascular events. It does not directly relate to the client's history of gout or the risk of calcium kidney stones.
C) Correct- Allopurinol is a medication used to treat gout by reducing the production of uric acid in the body. However, allopurinol can also increase the risk of forming calcium oxalate kidney stones, which is the type of kidney stone mentioned in the client's history. Calcium oxalate stones are the most common type of kidney stone, and they are composed primarily of calcium and oxalate. In this case, the client has a history of gout and is prescribed allopurinol. The nurse should bring the client's prescription for allopurinol to the healthcare provider's attention because
it has the potential to contribute to the formation of kidney stones, which could exacerbate the client's existing condition.
D) Incorrect- Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat hypertension and heart failure. It does not directly relate to the client's history of gout or the risk of calcium kidney stones.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice D
Choice A rationale: Repeating information may reinforce understanding but does not address the core barrier in unilateral hearing loss, which is sound localization and clarity. Auditory input from one ear limits binaural processing, making it harder to distinguish speech from background noise. Repetition without visual cues or proper orientation may still result in misinterpretation. Effective communication requires compensating for the sensory deficit, not merely reiterating content. Thus, repetition alone is insufficient for optimal education delivery.
Choice B rationale: Writing on a whiteboard provides visual support but lacks the dynamic interaction necessary for patient education. While visual aids help reinforce concepts, they do not allow for immediate clarification or emotional engagement. Pain management education involves nuanced discussion of pharmacologic options, side effects, and patient preferences. Relying solely on written communication may hinder comprehension, especially if literacy or cognitive load is a concern. It should supplement, not replace, direct verbal and visual interaction.
Choice C rationale: Speaking loudly into the affected ear is counterproductive and may distort sound further. In unilateral hearing loss, the affected ear has reduced or absent auditory function, and increasing volume does not restore clarity. Loud speech can also be perceived as aggressive or uncomfortable. Effective communication requires engaging the functional ear and using visual cues to enhance comprehension. Loudness does not compensate for neural deficits in auditory processing and may worsen patient experience.
Choice D rationale: Facing the client allows for optimal use of visual cues such as lip reading, facial expressions, and gestures, which are critical in compensating for unilateral auditory deficits. This technique engages the functional ear while supporting multimodal communication. It respects the neurophysiological limitations of monaural hearing and enhances speech perception through visual-auditory integration. Direct face-to-face interaction also fosters trust and allows for immediate feedback, making it the most scientifically sound approach for patient education.
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