After an older client receives treatment for drug toxicity, the healthcare provider prescribes a 24-hour creatinine clearance test. Prior to starting the urine collection, the nurse notes that the client's serum creatinine is 0.3 mg/dL (22.9 μmol/L). Which action should the nurse implement?
Creatinine [Reference Range: 0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL (44 to 97 μmol/L)]

Initiate the urine collection as prescribed.

Evaluate the client's serum BUN level.

Notify the healthcare provider of the results.

Assess the client for signs of hypokalemia.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale: Initiating the urine collection without reporting the low serum creatinine is inappropriate. A value of 0.3 mg/dL is below the reference range and may indicate significant muscle wasting or severe malnutrition.

Choice B rationale: Evaluating the BUN level provides information about hydration and renal perfusion, but it does not address the immediate clinical significance of an abnormally low creatinine level in an older adult client.

Choice C rationale: The nurse must notify the provider because a creatinine level of 0.3 mg/dL is abnormally low. In older adults, this often reflects low muscle mass, which significantly impacts how drug dosages are calculated.

Choice D rationale: Assessing for hypokalemia is not directly indicated by a low creatinine level. While electrolyte monitoring is important in drug toxicity, it is not the priority action linked to this specific lab finding.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) Incorrect- Reviewing transcutaneous bilirubin levels is unrelated to the presence of an enlarged clitoris. Bilirubin levels are typically assessed to monitor jaundice in newborns.
B) Incorrect- Observing and palpating breast tissue for enlargement is not relevant to the condition of salt-wasting congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Breast tissue enlargement would not be associated with this hormonal disorder.
C) Incorrect- Assessing for signs of fluid retention and bilateral pedal edema is important for monitoring for other conditions, but it is not relevant to the enlarged clitoris seen in this specific scenario.
D) Correct- Salt-wasting congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a genetic disorder that results in a deficiency of certain enzymes required for cortisol and aldosterone production. This deficiency leads to an overproduction of androgens, which can cause virilization of female external genitalia. The enlarged clitoris is a result of increased androgen levels. Explaining this finding to the mother provides her with accurate information about the condition and its effects on the infant's anatomy.

A. Refer the parents to the chaplain to provide grief counseling. B. Tell the parents that blaming each other will not change the situation C. Assure the parents that a terminal diagnosis is inevitable. D. Explain to the parents that anger is a common response to grief.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The correct answer is choice d. Explain to the parents that anger is a common response to grief.

Choice A rationale:

Referring the parents to the chaplain for grief counseling can be beneficial, but it may not address the immediate emotional outburst and the need for understanding their feelings.

Choice B rationale:

Telling the parents that blaming each other will not change the situation might be true, but it can come across as dismissive and may not provide the emotional support they need at that moment.

Choice C rationale:

Assuring the parents that a terminal diagnosis is inevitable does not address their current emotional state and may seem insensitive to their grief and anger.

Choice D rationale:

Explaining to the parents that anger is a common response to grief helps them understand their emotions and provides immediate emotional support, making it the best intervention in this situation.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

When assessing a newborn girl with salt-wasting congenital adrenal hyperplasia due to 21 hydroxylase deficiency, the nurse notes that the infant has an enlarged clitoris. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

When the parents of a 6-year-old boy with a brain tumor are told that his condition is terminal, the mother shouts at the father, "This is your fault! It never would have happened if we had sought treatment sooner!" Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A female client is taking alendronate, a bisphosphonate, for postmenopausal osteoporosis. The client tells the nurse that she is experiencing jaw pain. How should the nurse respond?

What age-related factors may factor into this client's wound healing? Select all that apply.

A client with foul-smelling drainage from an incision on the upper left arm is admitted with a suspected methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which nursing intervention(s) should the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)

Following morning care, a client with a C-5 spinal cord injury who is sitting in a wheelchair becomes flushed and complains of a headache. Which intervention should the nurse implementfirst?

A client with a history of unstable angina presents to the emergency department with constant chest pressure that is unrelieved with rest. The client appears anxious, pale, and diaphoretic. After obtaining the client's vital signs, which action should the nurse take next?

The practical nurse (PN) reports that a client who has a fingerstick glucose of 35 mg/dL (1.94 mmol/L) is alert and diaphoretic. Which action should the charge nurse take? Reference Ranges Glucose [Reference Range: 0 to 50 years: 74 to 106 mg/dL (4.1 to 5.9 mmol/L)]