After an older client receives treatment for drug toxicity, the healthcare provider prescribes a 24-hour creatinine clearance test. Prior to starting the urine collection, the nurse notes that the client's serum creatinine is 0.3 mg/dL (22.9 μmol/L). Which action should the nurse implement?
Creatinine [Reference Range: 0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL (44 to 97 μmol/L)]
Initiate the urine collection as prescribed.
Evaluate the client's serum BUN level.
Notify the healthcare provider of the results.
Assess the client for signs of hypokalemia.
The Correct Answer is A
A low serum creatinine level indicates decreased muscle mass or impaired kidney function. However, it does not necessarily indicate that the 24-hour creatinine clearance test should be withheld or delayed.
Initiating the urine collection as prescribed allows for the accurate assessment of creatinine clearance and provides valuable information about the client's kidney function. The test results can help guide further evaluation and management of the client's condition.
Assessing the client's serum BUN level, notifying the healthcare provider of the results, or assessing for signs of hypokalemia may be relevant in certain situations but are not the immediate priority based on the information provided.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Imbalanced Nutrition: less than body requirements would be the nursing problem with the highest priority for an adolescent with anorexia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is characterized by a severe restriction of food intake leading to a significantly low body weight, which can have serious physical and psychological consequences. Therefore, addressing the client's malnutrition and promoting adequate nutrition intake is crucial to prevent further complications. Disturbed Body Image, Interrupted Family Processes, and Noncompliance with treatment regimen are important nursing problems to address, but they are secondary to the client's malnutrition.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice d. Explain to the parents that anger is a common response to grief.
Choice A rationale:
Referring the parents to the chaplain for grief counseling can be beneficial, but it may not address the immediate emotional outburst and the need for understanding their feelings.
Choice B rationale:
Telling the parents that blaming each other will not change the situation might be true, but it can come across as dismissive and may not provide the emotional support they need at that moment.
Choice C rationale:
Assuring the parents that a terminal diagnosis is inevitable does not address their current emotional state and may seem insensitive to their grief and anger.
Choice D rationale:
Explaining to the parents that anger is a common response to grief helps them understand their emotions and provides immediate emotional support, making it the best intervention in this situation.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.