When the parents of a 6-year-old boy with a brain tumor are told that his condition is terminal, the mother shouts at the father, "This is your fault! It never would have happened if we had sought treatment sooner!" Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
Refer the parents to the chaplain to provide grief counseling.
Tell the parents that blaming each other will not change the situation
Assure the parents that a terminal diagnosis is inevitable.
Explain to the parents that anger is a common response to grief.
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is choice d. Explain to the parents that anger is a common response to grief.
Choice A rationale:
Referring the parents to the chaplain for grief counseling can be beneficial, but it may not address the immediate emotional outburst and the need for understanding their feelings.
Choice B rationale:
Telling the parents that blaming each other will not change the situation might be true, but it can come across as dismissive and may not provide the emotional support they need at that moment.
Choice C rationale:
Assuring the parents that a terminal diagnosis is inevitable does not address their current emotional state and may seem insensitive to their grief and anger.
Choice D rationale:
Explaining to the parents that anger is a common response to grief helps them understand their emotions and provides immediate emotional support, making it the best intervention in this situation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]
Explanation
A) Incorrect- Standard precautions are used for all clients to prevent the spread of infections.
However, in the case of MRSA, contact precautions are needed due to the risk of direct transmission through physical contact.
B) Correct- Monitoring the white blood cell count is important to assess for signs of infection, as an elevated count might indicate an ongoing inflammatory response.
C) Correct- Foul-smelling drainage from an incision with suspected MRSA indicates a potential infection. Contact precautions are appropriate for MRSA, which include wearing gloves and gowns when entering the client's room to prevent the spread of the bacteria.
D) Correct- Sending wound drainage for culture and sensitivity helps identify the specific microorganisms causing the infection and guides appropriate antibiotic treatment.
E) Incorrect- A low-bacteria diet is not relevant to the situation. MRSA is caused by a bacterium, not by dietary factors. The focus should be on infection control measures and appropriate medical interventions.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A.While pain management is important, it is not the most critical intervention compared to monitoring for bleeding, which can be life-threatening.
B.Teaching the client how to use incentive spirometry is important for improving lung function and preventing complications like atelectasis. However, in the context of a pulmonary embolism (PE), the immediate priority is to monitor for signs of increased bleeding due to the anticoagulant or thrombolytic therapy often used to treat PE. This is crucial to prevent potentially life-threatening complications.
C.Confusion and restlessness could indicate hypoxia, which is important to monitor in a PE patient. However, the immediate risk of bleeding due to anticoagulation therapy takes precedence.
D.Patients with a pulmonary embolism are typically treated with thrombolytic or anticoagulant therapy to prevent further clot formation and to help dissolve the existing clot. Anticoagulants significantly increase the risk of bleeding, making it crucial to monitor for signs of increased bleeding as a priority in the plan of care.
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