A mother brings her 3-week-old son to the clinic because he is vomiting "all the time." In performing a physical assessment, the nurse notes that the infant has poor skin turgor, has lost 20% of his birth weight, and has a small palpable oval-shaped mass in his abdomen. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Initiate a prescribed IV for parenteral fluid.
Feed the infant 3 ounces of Isomil.
Give the infant 5% dextrose in water orally.
Insert a nasogastric tube for feeding.
The Correct Answer is A
The presenting symptoms of the infant, including persistent vomiting, poor skin turgor, significant weight loss, and a palpable abdominal mass, indicate a potential serious condition that requires immediate attention. These findings may suggest dehydration, malnutrition, and the presence of an abdominal mass that could be causing gastrointestinal obstruction or other underlying pathology.
Initiating a prescribed IV for parenteral fluid is the priority intervention to address the potential dehydration and fluid imbalance in the infant. This will help restore and maintain adequate hydration while further diagnostic evaluations and interventions are initiated.
Feeding the infant, giving 5% dextrose in water orally, or inserting a nasogastric tube for feeding should not be implemented as the first intervention in this case. It is important to stabilize the infant's fluid status before initiating oral feedings or other interventions to address the underlying cause of the symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Incorrect- Hip arthroplasty is a scheduled procedure, and there is no immediate indication of a critical condition that requires urgent attention.
B) Correct- Postoperative hemorrhage is a serious complication, and an older client receiving packed red blood cells may be experiencing active bleeding. This situation requires immediate assessment and intervention.
C) Incorrect- While continuous bladder irrigation requires monitoring, it is not as urgent as a potential postoperative hemorrhage.
D) Incorrect- Pain management is important, but it is not as urgent as assessing a client who may be experiencing active bleeding.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The client's statement of feeling worthless most days and having no interest in activities she previously enjoyed indicates a potential risk for self-directed violence, including self-harm or suicidal ideation. These signs are significant and require immediate attention and intervention by the nurse.
Assessing and addressing the client's risk for self-directed violence is of utmost importance to ensure her safety and well-being. The nurse should initiate a thorough assessment of the client's mental health, including assessing for any suicidal ideation, intent, or plans. It is crucial to establish a supportive and non-judgmental environment for the client to express her feelings and concerns.
The nurse should collaborate with the healthcare team to develop an appropriate care plan that may involve interventions such as close observation, involving a mental health professional, implementing safety measures, and providing emotional support.
While addressing other nursing problems, such as anxiety, imbalanced nutrition, and chronic low self-esteem, is important, the immediate concern is the client's risk for self-directed violence due to her feelings of hopelessness.
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