A mother brings her 3-week-old son to the clinic because he is vomiting "all the time." In performing a physical assessment, the nurse notes that the infant has poor skin turgor, has lost 20% of his birth weight, and has a small palpable oval-shaped mass in his abdomen. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Initiate a prescribed IV for parenteral fluid.
Feed the infant 3 ounces of Isomil.
Give the infant 5% dextrose in water orally.
Insert a nasogastric tube for feeding.
The Correct Answer is A
The presenting symptoms of the infant, including persistent vomiting, poor skin turgor, significant weight loss, and a palpable abdominal mass, indicate a potential serious condition that requires immediate attention. These findings may suggest dehydration, malnutrition, and the presence of an abdominal mass that could be causing gastrointestinal obstruction or other underlying pathology.
Initiating a prescribed IV for parenteral fluid is the priority intervention to address the potential dehydration and fluid imbalance in the infant. This will help restore and maintain adequate hydration while further diagnostic evaluations and interventions are initiated.
Feeding the infant, giving 5% dextrose in water orally, or inserting a nasogastric tube for feeding should not be implemented as the first intervention in this case. It is important to stabilize the infant's fluid status before initiating oral feedings or other interventions to address the underlying cause of the symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Correct- Zidovudine is an antiretroviral medication used in the treatment of HIV infection.
One of the potential side effects of zidovudine is hematological toxicity, including anemia (low red blood cell count) and neutropenia (low white blood cell count). The appearance of pinpoint, red, round spots on the skin could be indicative of petechiae, which are small hemorrhages caused by the leakage of blood into the skin. Petechiae can occur due to low platelet counts, a
component of the complete blood count (CBC). Monitoring the complete blood count is important for clients receiving zidovudine to identify any potential adverse effects on blood cell counts. Anemia and neutropenia can increase the risk of infection, bleeding, and other complications. Therefore, any changes in blood cell counts, including the presence of petechiae, should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.
B) Incorrect- This is used to assess allergic reactions and is not specifically related to the appearance of petechiae.
C) Incorrect- A skin biopsy is typically performed to diagnose skin conditions or diseases and is not the primary assessment to evaluate the cause of petechiae.
D) Incorrect- Electromyography is a diagnostic test used to assess muscle and nerve function and is not relevant to the appearance of petechiae associated with zidovudine use.
Correct Answer is ["A","E","F"]
Explanation
A) Correct- The client's statement suggests a misconception about the progression from acute stress disorder (ASD) to post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). While ASD is an initial response to trauma, it doesn't necessarily indicate a high risk for developing PTSD. The nurse should provide education about the differences and the various factors that influence the development of PTSD.
B) Incorrect- This statement reflects the client's proactive approach to using holistic approaches like meditation to manage symptoms. Meditation and other relaxation techniques can be beneficial for managing stress and anxiety related to the traumatic event.
C) Incorrect- This statement reflects the client's motivation to learn how to manage their thoughts better through therapy. Therapy can be highly effective for addressing trauma-related distress and helping clients develop coping strategies.
D) Incorrect- This statement reflects the client's recognition that their response is shared by many people in similar situations. Validating the client's experience and normalizing their feelings can be therapeutic.
E) Correct- This statement reflects a common misconception and stigma associated with mental health diagnoses. The nurse should reassure the client that a diagnosis of acute stress disorderdoes not equate to being "crazy" and provide information about the nature of the disorder and available treatments.
F) Correct- The statement implies a potential pessimistic outlook on treatment. While medication might be part of the treatment plan, it's important to emphasize that treatment approaches are individualized. Encouraging an open dialogue about various treatment options, including therapy and coping strategies, is essential.
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