In assessing a client at 34 weeks gestation, the nurse notes that she has a slightly elevated total T4 with a slightly enlarged thyroid, a hematocrit of 28% (0.28 volume fraction), a heart rate of 92 beats per minute, and a systolic murmur. Which finding requires follow-up?
Reference Range:
Hematocrit [37% to 47% (0.37 to 0.47 volume fraction)]
Hematocrit of 28% (0.28 volume fraction).
Heart rate of 92 beats per minute.
Systolic murmur.
Elevated thyroid hormone level.
The Correct Answer is A
A) Correct- Hematocrit values below the reference range during pregnancy could indicate anemia, which requires further evaluation and intervention. The other findings can be attributed to normal physiological changes during pregnancy (elevated total T4, heart rate increase) or can be common findings (systolic murmur).
B) Incorrect - A heart rate of 92 beats per minute is within the normal range for pregnancy due to increased blood volume and hormonal changes.
C) Incorrect - A systolic murmur can be a common finding during pregnancy due to increased cardiac output.
D) Incorrect - An elevated total T4 can be a normal finding during pregnancy due to hormonal changes.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A.While pain management is important, it is not the most critical intervention compared to monitoring for bleeding, which can be life-threatening.
B.Teaching the client how to use incentive spirometry is important for improving lung function and preventing complications like atelectasis. However, in the context of a pulmonary embolism (PE), the immediate priority is to monitor for signs of increased bleeding due to the anticoagulant or thrombolytic therapy often used to treat PE. This is crucial to prevent potentially life-threatening complications.
C.Confusion and restlessness could indicate hypoxia, which is important to monitor in a PE patient. However, the immediate risk of bleeding due to anticoagulation therapy takes precedence.
D.Patients with a pulmonary embolism are typically treated with thrombolytic or anticoagulant therapy to prevent further clot formation and to help dissolve the existing clot. Anticoagulants significantly increase the risk of bleeding, making it crucial to monitor for signs of increased bleeding as a priority in the plan of care.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Incorrect - Initiating continuous dopamine infusion is not a priority in this situation. The client's low blood pressure and electrolyte imbalances require more immediate attention.
B) Incorrect - Administering promethazine addresses symptoms like nausea and vomiting, but it doesn't address the primary issue of hypovolemia and low blood pressure.
C) Incorrect - Administering potassium chloride without addressing the fluid deficit can be dangerous and may lead to further electrolyte imbalances.
D) Correct- The client's vital signs and laboratory results indicate hypovolemia (low blood pressure, low sodium, and low potassium). The immediate priority is to address the fluid deficit and correct the electrolyte imbalances. Administering a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) will help increase intravascular volume and improve blood pressure, as well as correct the electrolyte imbalances to some extent.
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