A primiparous woman presents in labor with the following labs: hemoglobin 10.9 g/dL (109 g/L), hematocrit 29% (0.29), hepatitis surface antigen positive, group B Streptococcus positive, and rubella non- immune.

Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Reference Range

Hemaglobin [Reference Range:12-16 g/dL (120-160 g/L)]

Hematrocrit [Reference Range:Pregnant female: 37% to 47% (0.37 to 0.47 volume fraction)] Hepatitis Surface Antigen [Reference Range: negative]

Group B Streptococcus [Reference Range: negative]

Transfuse two units packed red blood cells.

Administer ampicillin 2 grams intravenously.

Inject hepatitis B immune globulin 0.5 mL.

Give measles, mumps, rubella vaccine 0.5 mL.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

The client's labs indicate that she has a positive result for group B Streptococcus (GBS) and hepatitis surface antigen, and she is also identified as rubella non-immune.

Ampicillin is the recommended antibiotic for intrapartum prophylaxis against GBS infection to reduce the risk of transmission to the newborn. Administering ampicillin intravenously would help protect the newborn from potential GBS-related complications. Transfusion of packed red blood cells is not indicated based on the hemoglobin and hematocrit values provided. The client's hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, although lower than the reference range, are not critically low and do not necessarily require a blood transfusion.

Injecting hepatitis B immune globulin is not the appropriate intervention in this case. The client is positive for hepatitis surface antigen, indicating active infection, and requires appropriate medical management, which may include antiviral treatment.

Administering the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy. Vaccination for rubella is typically recommended prior to conception or postpartum to prevent congenital rubella syndrome.

Nursing Test Bank

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) Incorrect- This test is used to assess for infection or inflammation and is not specifically related to monitoring diabetes insipidus.
B) Incorrect- This test is used to monitor blood sugar levels in individuals with diabetes mellitus, not diabetes insipidus.
C) Incorrect- While urine specific gravity can provide information about urine concentration, it is not the most important laboratory test to monitor in a client with diabetes insipidus. Serum sodium level is a more critical indicator of electrolyte balance and potential complications in DI.
D) Correct- Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition characterized by excessive thirst and urination due to the body's inability to regulate fluid balance. In DI, the body either lacks antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which regulates water reabsorption in the kidneys, or the kidneys are resistant to its effects. As a result, clients with DI can produce large volumes of dilute urine. The most significant concern in DI is the potential for electrolyte imbalances, particularly low serum sodium levels (hyponatremia). Excessive loss of water in the urine can lead to dehydration and concentration of the blood's sodium levels. This can result in neurological symptoms, such as confusion, seizures, and even coma. Monitoring the serum sodium level is crucial to ensure that it remains within a safe range.

A. An adult who is in Buck's traction, and scheduled for hip arthroplasty within the next 12 hours. B. An older client who is receiving packed red blood cells on the third day postoperatively for colon resection. C. An older client with continuous bladder irrigation who is 2 days postoperatively for bladder surgery. D. An adult one day postoperative laparoscopic cholecystectomy requesting pain medication.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Incorrect- Hip arthroplasty is a scheduled procedure, and there is no immediate indication of a critical condition that requires urgent attention.
B) Correct- Postoperative hemorrhage is a serious complication, and an older client receiving packed red blood cells may be experiencing active bleeding. This situation requires immediate assessment and intervention.
C) Incorrect- While continuous bladder irrigation requires monitoring, it is not as urgent as a potential postoperative hemorrhage.
D) Incorrect- Pain management is important, but it is not as urgent as assessing a client who may be experiencing active bleeding.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client with diabetes insipidus (DI) has an average urinary output of 500 ml. of dilute urine every hour for the last 4 hours. Which laboratory test is most important for the nurse to monitor?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse is assigned to care for four surgical clients. After receiving report, which client should the nurse see first?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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