A primiparous woman presents in labor with the following labs: hemoglobin 10.9 g/dL (109 g/L), hematocrit 29% (0.29), hepatitis surface antigen positive, group B Streptococcus positive, and rubella non- immune.

Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Reference Range

Hemaglobin [Reference Range:12-16 g/dL (120-160 g/L)]

Hematrocrit [Reference Range:Pregnant female: 37% to 47% (0.37 to 0.47 volume fraction)] Hepatitis Surface Antigen [Reference Range: negative]

Group B Streptococcus [Reference Range: negative]

Transfuse two units packed red blood cells.

Administer ampicillin 2 grams intravenously.

Inject hepatitis B immune globulin 0.5 mL.

Give measles, mumps, rubella vaccine 0.5 mL.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

The client's labs indicate that she has a positive result for group B Streptococcus (GBS) and hepatitis surface antigen, and she is also identified as rubella non-immune.

Ampicillin is the recommended antibiotic for intrapartum prophylaxis against GBS infection to reduce the risk of transmission to the newborn. Administering ampicillin intravenously would help protect the newborn from potential GBS-related complications. Transfusion of packed red blood cells is not indicated based on the hemoglobin and hematocrit values provided. The client's hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, although lower than the reference range, are not critically low and do not necessarily require a blood transfusion.

Injecting hepatitis B immune globulin is not the appropriate intervention in this case. The client is positive for hepatitis surface antigen, indicating active infection, and requires appropriate medical management, which may include antiviral treatment.

Administering the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy. Vaccination for rubella is typically recommended prior to conception or postpartum to prevent congenital rubella syndrome.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The client is experiencing severe abdominal incisional pain, and her vital signs indicate an elevated heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure. These signs suggest that the client is in distress and may be experiencing pain-related complications.

Assessing the IV site for patency is crucial to ensure that the client is receiving the prescribed IV analgesic medication effectively. If the IV site is not patent or if there is any obstruction, the administration of IV analgesics may be delayed, resulting in inadequate pain relief for the client.

While providing a pillow for splinting can offer comfort and support to the client, it is not the most critical intervention in this situation. Placing the client in a high Fowler position may help with pain management, but it is not the priority at this moment. Administering an IV analgesic is an appropriate intervention, but before doing so, it is essential to ensure that the IV site is patent.

A. Determine how the client is administering the medication. B. Advise the client to gargle with warm salt water twice daily. C. Report the client's jaw pain to the healthcare provider. D. Confirm that this is a common symptom of osteoporosis.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Jaw pain in a client taking alendronate, a bisphosphonate, for postmenopausal osteoporosis may be a sign of a rare but serious side effect called osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ). Therefore, the nurse should respond by: Report the client's jaw pain to the healthcare provider.

Jaw pain can be an indication of ONJ, a condition characterized by the death of jawbone tissue. It is important to notify the healthcare provider so that further evaluation and appropriate management can be initiated. The healthcare provider will determine the best course of action, which may include referral to a specialist for further assessment and treatment.

Determining how the client is administering the medication is not the immediate concern in this situation. While it is important to ensure that the client is following proper administration instructions for alendronate, addressing the jaw pain takes precedence.

Advising the client to gargle with warm salt water twice daily may not be sufficient or appropriate for managing jaw pain related to alendronate use. The client needs a comprehensive assessment by the healthcare provider to determine the cause of the jaw pain and provide appropriate interventions.

Confirming that jaw pain is a common symptom of osteoporosis is not accurate. While osteoporosis can lead to bone pain, jaw pain specifically associated with bisphosphonate use is more likely to be related to ONJ and requires further evaluation and management

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A female client is taking alendronate, a bisphosphonate, for postmenopausal osteoporosis. The client tells the nurse that she is experiencing jaw pain. How should the nurse respond?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

An older client comes to the clinic with a family member. When the nurse attempts to take the client's health history, the client does not respond to questions in a clear manner. Which action should the nurse implement first?

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