The health care provider prescribes the antilipemic lovastatin for a client who has exhibited a consistently elevated serum cholesterol level. In evaluating the client’s treatment regimen, which remark by the client indicates to the nurse that the client understands the drug’s treatment protocol?
As soon as my cholesterol is lowered, I can stop taking this drug.
I will avoid taking alcoholic beverages while am taking this medication.
Taking this drug will enable me to have more choices about what can eat.
I will have a white blood count drawn monthly to monitor tor development of an infection.
The Correct Answer is B
Lovastatin is an antilipemic medication used to lower cholesterol levels in the blood1. It is important for clients taking lovastatin to avoid drinking alcohol as it can increase the risk of liver problems. If the client remarks that they will avoid taking alcoholic beverages while taking this medication, it indicates that they understand the drug’s treatment protocol.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that is given once daily at the same time every day via subcutaneous injection. Therefore, it is essential to teach the client self-injection skills for daily subcutaneous administration to ensure proper administration of insulin.
Option b is incorrect because insulin glargine is typically given at the same dose every day, not based on before meal blood sugar readings.
Option c is incorrect because insulin glargine is not used for the treatment of severe hypoglycemia, and it should not be administered by someone who is not trained to do so.
Option d is incorrect because ketoacidosis is a serious complication of diabetes mellitus that requires urgent medical atention, and increasing medication dosage is not appropriate for this condition.

Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The client is experiencing syncope (fainting) due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40 mm Hg, which is too low. This suggests that the client's blood pressure medications are reducing their blood pressure too much, resulting in hypotension. The rationale for the nurse's decision to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medications is to prevent further hypotension and allow the client's blood pressure to stabilize at a safer level.
Option a is incorrect because diuresis (increased urine output) is not a likely cause of the client's hypotension.
Option b is incorrect because the client's symptoms suggest hypotension due to reduced blood pressure, rather than drug toxicity.
Option c is incorrect because the antagonistic interaction among blood pressure medications would result in reduced effectiveness but would not necessarily cause hypotension.
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