An elderly client with heart failure comet to the emergency room because of nausea, vomiting, and anorexia. Based on the client’s signs and symptoms, which data from the medical history has the most significance when planning this client’s care?
A coronary artery bypass procedure was performed in 1995.
Suffered with depression following death of spouse in 1999.
Digoxin and furosemide daily since 1996.
A Colonoscopy was performed for routine screening six months ago.
The Correct Answer is C
Digoxin is a medication commonly used to treat heart failure by strengthening the heart's contractions and slowing down the heart rate. However, it can also cause nausea, vomiting, and loss of appetite, especially when levels in the body are too high. Furosemide is a diuretic medication that helps to remove excess fluid from the body, which is often necessary in heart failure. However, it can also cause electrolyte imbalances, such as low potassium levels, which can contribute to nausea and vomiting.
Therefore, in a client with heart failure who is experiencing these symptoms, it is important to assess their medication regimen, including dosages and serum levels, to ensure that they are not experiencing medication side effects or toxicity.
Adjustments may need to be made to the client's medication regimen to manage symptoms effectively and prevent further complications. Options (a), (b), and (d) do not have as direct a correlation to the current symptoms and would not have the same level of significance when planning care for this client.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The client is experiencing syncope (fainting) due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40 mm Hg, which is too low. This suggests that the client's blood pressure medications are reducing their blood pressure too much, resulting in hypotension. The rationale for the nurse's decision to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medications is to prevent further hypotension and allow the client's blood pressure to stabilize at a safer level.
Option a is incorrect because diuresis (increased urine output) is not a likely cause of the client's hypotension.
Option b is incorrect because the client's symptoms suggest hypotension due to reduced blood pressure, rather than drug toxicity.
Option c is incorrect because the antagonistic interaction among blood pressure medications would result in reduced effectiveness but would not necessarily cause hypotension.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Baclofen is a muscle relaxant medication used to treat muscle spasticity, which is a condition that causes muscles to become stiff and rigid. It works by reducing the activity of nerves in the brain and spinal cord that cause muscle spasms.
Option a, using stool softener as needed, is appropriate because baclofen can cause constipation as a side effect.
Option b, avoiding ingestion of alcohol, is also appropriate because alcohol can increase the sedative effects of baclofen and cause drowsiness or dizziness.
Option d, taking medication with meals, is recommended because it can help reduce stomach upset and nausea that may occur as a side effect of the medication.
Option c, discontinuing the medication when spasms cease, is incorrect because muscle spasticity is a chronic condition, and baclofen is used to manage symptoms over a prolonged period. Discontinuing the medication abruptly can cause withdrawal symptoms and exacerbate the spasticity. Therefore, the nurse should educate the client to take the medication as prescribed by the healthcare provider and not discontinue it without medical advice.
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