A client with chemotherapy induced nausea receives a prescription for metoclopramide. Which adverse effect is most important for the nurse to report?
Unusual irritability.
Diarrhea
Nausea
Involuntary movements.
The Correct Answer is D
Metoclopramide is a medication used to treat nausea and vomiting, including those caused by chemotherapy. However, it has a potential adverse effect of causing extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), which are involuntary movements of the body, such as muscle spasms, twitching, or restlessness. These symptoms can be distressing for patients and can interfere with their quality of life. EPS can be a sign of tardive dyskinesia, a serious and irreversible neurological disorder.
Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to monitor the client for any signs of EPS and report them immediately to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Unusual irritability, diarrhea, and nausea are also potential adverse effects of metoclopramide, but they are not as concerning as EPS.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Diabetes insipidus is a condition in which the kidneys are unable to conserve water, leading to excessive thirst and urination. It is treated with antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which helps the kidneys retain water and reduce urine output. When caring for a client with diabetes insipidus who is receiving ADH intranasally, it is important for the nurse to monitor the client’s serum osmolality.
Osmolality is a measure of the concentration of particles in a solution and can provide information about the client’s hydration status.
Monitoring serum osmolality can help determine if the ADH therapy is effective in managing the client’s diabetes insipidus.

Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The client is experiencing syncope (fainting) due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40 mm Hg, which is too low. This suggests that the client's blood pressure medications are reducing their blood pressure too much, resulting in hypotension. The rationale for the nurse's decision to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medications is to prevent further hypotension and allow the client's blood pressure to stabilize at a safer level.
Option a is incorrect because diuresis (increased urine output) is not a likely cause of the client's hypotension.
Option b is incorrect because the client's symptoms suggest hypotension due to reduced blood pressure, rather than drug toxicity.
Option c is incorrect because the antagonistic interaction among blood pressure medications would result in reduced effectiveness but would not necessarily cause hypotension.
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