A client with bipolar disorder admitted with severe depression and suicidal ideation receives a prescription for lithium carbonate, which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?
Eliminate use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. (NSAIDs)
Avoid consuming all foods that contain Iodine.
Notify healthcare provider prior to dental procedures.
Monitor blood glucose levels daily.
The Correct Answer is A
Lithium carbonate is a mood stabilizer commonly used to treat bipolar disorder. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires careful monitoring of serum levels to avoid toxicity. One of the major concerns with lithium therapy is the potential for drug interactions and toxicity. NSAIDs such as ibuprofen and naproxen can increase lithium levels by reducing its excretion and can lead to lithium toxicity. Therefore, it is essential to instruct the client to eliminate the use of NSAIDs while taking lithium.
Option b) Avoid consuming all foods that contain iodine is incorrect because iodine is not contraindicated with lithium. However, excessive iodine intake can interfere with thyroid function, which can exacerbate mood instability.
Option c) Notify healthcare provider prior to dental procedures is not specific to lithium therapy and is a general precaution that patients with bipolar disorder should follow before any medical or dental procedures.
Option d) Monitor blood glucose levels daily is also not directly related to lithium therapy. While lithium can cause diabetes insipidus, which can lead to excessive thirst and urination, it does not typically affect blood glucose levels.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Diclofenac, like other NSAIDs, can cause gastrointestinal irritation and bleeding. The client’s symptoms of pallor and fatigue may indicate anemia due to blood loss. Reviewing the client’s hemoglobin level would help the nurse determine if the client is experiencing anemia and if further evaluation and intervention are needed.

Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The client is experiencing syncope (fainting) due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40 mm Hg, which is too low. This suggests that the client's blood pressure medications are reducing their blood pressure too much, resulting in hypotension. The rationale for the nurse's decision to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medications is to prevent further hypotension and allow the client's blood pressure to stabilize at a safer level.
Option a is incorrect because diuresis (increased urine output) is not a likely cause of the client's hypotension.
Option b is incorrect because the client's symptoms suggest hypotension due to reduced blood pressure, rather than drug toxicity.
Option c is incorrect because the antagonistic interaction among blood pressure medications would result in reduced effectiveness but would not necessarily cause hypotension.
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