An older adult with iron deficiency anemia is being discharged with a prescription for ferrous sulfate enteric-coated tablets. To promote the best absorption of the medication, which information should the nurse include in the discharge instructions?

Take a tablet with a daily multivitamin.

Crush the tablets and mix with pudding.

Bedtime is the best time to take the tablet.

Wait for 2 hours after meals to take the tablet.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Ferrous sulfate is best absorbed on an empty stomach. The nurse should instruct the client to wait for 2 hours after meals before taking the tablet to promote the best absorption of the medication. The client should also be advised not to crush the enteric-coated tablets as this can aﬀect the medication’s eﬀectiveness.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that is given once daily at the same time every day via subcutaneous injection. Therefore, it is essential to teach the client self-injection skills for daily subcutaneous administration to ensure proper administration of insulin.

Option b is incorrect because insulin glargine is typically given at the same dose every day, not based on before meal blood sugar readings.

Option c is incorrect because insulin glargine is not used for the treatment of severe hypoglycemia, and it should not be administered by someone who is not trained to do so.

Option d is incorrect because ketoacidosis is a serious complication of diabetes mellitus that requires urgent medical atention, and increasing medication dosage is not appropriate for this condition.

A. Determine if the full course of the initial prescription of medication was taken. B. Explain that the diarrhea may be an adverse eﬀect that requires further evaluation. C. Oﬀer instructions about the use of an over-the-counter antidiarrheal medication. D. advise that the infection has returned, and additional medication will be needed.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Nitrofurantoin is an antibiotic commonly used to treat urinary tract infections. One of the adverse eﬀects of nitrofurantoin is diarrhea, which may be severe and watery. Therefore, it is important for the home care nurse to inform the client that the diarrhea may be a side eﬀect of the medication and requires further evaluation. The nurse should instruct the client to stop taking the medication and contact their healthcare provider for further assessment and treatment. The nurse should also assess the client's ﬂuid and electrolyte status and monitor for signs of dehydration.

Option a is important to consider, but it does not address the potential adverse eﬀect of the medication.

Option c may be appropriate in some cases, but it is not the priority intervention at this time.

Option d is not necessarily true and may cause unnecessary alarm to the client.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

An older adult with iron deficiency anemia is being discharged with a prescription for ferrous sulfate enteric-coated tablets. To promote the best absorption of the medication, which information should the nurse include in the discharge instructions?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is planning to discharge teaching for a client with diabetes mellitus who has a new prescription for insulin glargine. Which action should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Two months after taking nitrofurantoin for a bacterial infection, a client reports the onset of severe, watery diarrhea to the home care nurse. How should the nurse respond?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client who receives multiple antihypertensive multiple medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40 mm Hg. Which is the rationale for the nurse’s decision to hold the client’s scheduled antihypertensive medications?

A client is scheduled for a spiral computed topography (CT) scan with contrast to evaluate for pulmonary embolism. Which information in the client’s history requires follow-up by the nurse?

The nurse is caring for a client who is taking diclofenac, an NSAID drug for rheumatoid arthritis. During a clinic visit, the client appears pale and reports increasing fatigue. Which of the client’s serum laboratory values is most important for the nurse to review?

A client taking atorvastatin becomes an increased serum creatine phosphokinase (CK) level. The nurse should assess the client for the onset of which problem?

The nurse is preparing a client with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) and a chronic productive cough for discharged home. Which prescribed medication should the nurse review with the client to manage this symptom?

Which nursing action had the highest priority when administering a dose of codeine with acetaminophen to a client?

The nurse assesses a client with intermittent claudication who is receiving pentoxifylline. Which assessment should the nurse perform to determine the eﬀectiveness of the medication?

After taking orlistat for one week, a female client tells the home health nurse that she is experiencing increasingly frequent faty stools and ﬂatus. Which action should the nurse take?