An older adult with iron deficiency anemia is being discharged with a prescription for ferrous sulfate enteric-coated tablets. To promote the best absorption of the medication, which information should the nurse include in the discharge instructions?

Take a tablet with a daily multivitamin.

Crush the tablets and mix with pudding.

Bedtime is the best time to take the tablet.

Wait for 2 hours after meals to take the tablet.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Ferrous sulfate is best absorbed on an empty stomach. The nurse should instruct the client to wait for 2 hours after meals before taking the tablet to promote the best absorption of the medication. The client should also be advised not to crush the enteric-coated tablets as this can aﬀect the medication’s eﬀectiveness.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Diclofenac, like other NSAIDs, can cause gastrointestinal irritation and bleeding. The client’s symptoms of pallor and fatigue may indicate anemia due to blood loss. Reviewing the client’s hemoglobin level would help the nurse determine if the client is experiencing anemia and if further evaluation and intervention are needed.

A. Increased urinary clearance of the multiple medications has produced diuresis and lowered blood pressure. B. The synergetic eﬀect of the multiple medication has resulted in drug toxicity and resulting hypotension. C. The antagonistic interaction among the various blood pressure medications has reduced their eﬀectiveness. D. The additive eﬀect of multiple medications has caused the blood pressure to drop too low.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The client is experiencing syncope (fainting) due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40 mm Hg, which is too low. This suggests that the client's blood pressure medications are reducing their blood pressure too much, resulting in hypotension. The rationale for the nurse's decision to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medications is to prevent further hypotension and allow the client's blood pressure to stabilize at a safer level.

Option a is incorrect because diuresis (increased urine output) is not a likely cause of the client's hypotension.

Option b is incorrect because the client's symptoms suggest hypotension due to reduced blood pressure, rather than drug toxicity.

Option c is incorrect because the antagonistic interaction among blood pressure medications would result in reduced eﬀectiveness but would not necessarily cause hypotension.

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An older adult with iron deficiency anemia is being discharged with a prescription for ferrous sulfate enteric-coated tablets. To promote the best absorption of the medication, which information should the nurse include in the discharge instructions?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is caring for a client who is taking diclofenac, an NSAID drug for rheumatoid arthritis. During a clinic visit, the client appears pale and reports increasing fatigue. Which of the client’s serum laboratory values is most important for the nurse to review?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client who receives multiple antihypertensive multiple medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40 mm Hg. Which is the rationale for the nurse’s decision to hold the client’s scheduled antihypertensive medications?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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An older adult with iron deficiency anemia is being discharged with a prescription for ferrous sulfate enteric-coated tablets. To promote the best absorption of the medication, which information should the nurse include in the discharge instructions?