A client with open-angle glaucoma asks the nurse how long the prescribed eye drops will need to be used. Which response made by the nurse is accurate?

Until a smaller angle can be restored.

For long-term control of normal eye pressure.

Until the excess pressure is reduced.

For long-term control of pain and swelling.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Open-angle glaucoma is a chronic eye condition that can cause irreversible damage to the optic nerve, leading to vision loss or blindness. The primary goal of treatment is to lower and control the intraocular pressure (IOP) to prevent further damage. Eye drops are often prescribed to reduce the IOP and are typically used for long-term control of normal eye pressure, even if the pressure has been reduced to a safe level.

Options a, c, and d are incorrect because they do not reﬂect the long-term management of open-angle glaucoma.

While reducing excess pressure may be a goal of treatment, it is not a guarantee that the eye drops will be discontinued once the pressure is normalized.

Likewise, restoring a smaller angle or managing pain and swelling may be secondary goals but are not the primary purpose of using eye drops in open-angle glaucoma

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The client is experiencing syncope (fainting) due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40 mm Hg, which is too low. This suggests that the client's blood pressure medications are reducing their blood pressure too much, resulting in hypotension. The rationale for the nurse's decision to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medications is to prevent further hypotension and allow the client's blood pressure to stabilize at a safer level.

Option a is incorrect because diuresis (increased urine output) is not a likely cause of the client's hypotension.

Option b is incorrect because the client's symptoms suggest hypotension due to reduced blood pressure, rather than drug toxicity.

Option c is incorrect because the antagonistic interaction among blood pressure medications would result in reduced eﬀectiveness but would not necessarily cause hypotension.

A. Unusual irritability. B. Diarrhea C. Nausea D. Involuntary movements.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Metoclopramide is a medication used to treat nausea and vomiting, including those caused by chemotherapy. However, it has a potential adverse eﬀect of causing extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), which are involuntary movements of the body, such as muscle spasms, twitching, or restlessness. These symptoms can be distressing for patients and can interfere with their quality of life. EPS can be a sign of tardive dyskinesia, a serious and irreversible neurological disorder.

Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to monitor the client for any signs of EPS and report them immediately to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Unusual irritability, diarrhea, and nausea are also potential adverse eﬀects of metoclopramide, but they are not as concerning as EPS.

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A client with open-angle glaucoma asks the nurse how long the prescribed eye drops will need to be used. Which response made by the nurse is accurate?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client who receives multiple antihypertensive multiple medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40 mm Hg. Which is the rationale for the nurse’s decision to hold the client’s scheduled antihypertensive medications?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client with chemotherapy induced nausea receives a prescription for metoclopramide. Which adverse eﬀect is most important for the nurse to report?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A female client starts a new prescription, oxybutynin, for symptoms of an overactive bladder. The client tells the nurse that she is training to run in a marathon. Which instruction should the nurse emphasize?

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After taking orlistat for one week, a female client tells the home health nurse that she is experiencing increasingly frequent faty stools and ﬂatus. Which action should the nurse take?

After receiving five doses of filgrastim, the nurse notes that the clients white blood cell count has increased from 2,500/mm3 to 5,000/mm3. Which action would the nurse take?

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