A client with open-angle glaucoma asks the nurse how long the prescribed eye drops will need to be used. Which response made by the nurse is accurate?

Until a smaller angle can be restored.

For long-term control of normal eye pressure.

Until the excess pressure is reduced.

For long-term control of pain and swelling.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Open-angle glaucoma is a chronic eye condition that can cause irreversible damage to the optic nerve, leading to vision loss or blindness. The primary goal of treatment is to lower and control the intraocular pressure (IOP) to prevent further damage. Eye drops are often prescribed to reduce the IOP and are typically used for long-term control of normal eye pressure, even if the pressure has been reduced to a safe level.

Options a, c, and d are incorrect because they do not reﬂect the long-term management of open-angle glaucoma.

While reducing excess pressure may be a goal of treatment, it is not a guarantee that the eye drops will be discontinued once the pressure is normalized.

Likewise, restoring a smaller angle or managing pain and swelling may be secondary goals but are not the primary purpose of using eye drops in open-angle glaucoma

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Digoxin is a medication commonly used to treat heart failure by strengthening the heart's contractions and slowing down the heart rate. However, it can also cause nausea, vomiting, and loss of appetite, especially when levels in the body are too high. Furosemide is a diuretic medication that helps to remove excess ﬂuid from the body, which is often necessary in heart failure. However, it can also cause electrolyte imbalances, such as low potassium levels, which can contribute to nausea and vomiting.

Therefore, in a client with heart failure who is experiencing these symptoms, it is important to assess their medication regimen, including dosages and serum levels, to ensure that they are not experiencing medication side eﬀects or toxicity.

Adjustments may need to be made to the client's medication regimen to manage symptoms eﬀectively and prevent further complications. Options (a), (b), and (d) do not have as direct a correlation to the current symptoms and would not have the same level of significance when planning care for this client.

A. Advice the client that the medication should start to work in about 30 minutes. B. Administer a stool softener/laxative at the same time as the analgesic. C. Instruct the client to request assistance when ambulating to the bathroom. D. Tell the client to notify the nurse if the pain is not relieved.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The correct answer is C. Instruct the client to request assistance when ambulating to the bathroom.

Choice A reason:

Advise the client that the medication should start to work in about 30 minutes.

While it is important to inform the client about the onset of action of the medication, this is not the highest priority. Codeine, an opioid, can cause dizziness and sedation, which increases the risk of falls. Therefore, safety measures take precedence over informing the client about the medication’s onset time.

Choice B reason:

Administer a stool softener/laxative at the same time as the analgesic.

Opioids like codeine can cause constipation, so administering a stool softener or laxative is a good practice. However, this action is not the highest priority when considering the immediate safety of the client. Ensuring the client’s safety from potential falls due to dizziness or sedation is more urgent.

Choice C reason:

Instruct the client to request assistance when ambulating to the bathroom.

This is the correct answer because codeine can cause dizziness, sedation, and orthostatic hypotension, increasing the risk of falls. Ensuring the client requests assistance when moving can prevent potential injuries, making it the highest priority nursing action.

Choice D reason:

Tell the client to notify the nurse if the pain is not relieved.

While it is important for the client to communicate about the effectiveness of pain relief, this is not the highest priority. The immediate concern is the client’s safety due to the sedative effects of codeine. Therefore, preventing falls and injuries takes precedence.

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A client with open-angle glaucoma asks the nurse how long the prescribed eye drops will need to be used. Which response made by the nurse is accurate?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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