A client with open-angle glaucoma asks the nurse how long the prescribed eye drops will need to be used. Which response made by the nurse is accurate?

Until a smaller angle can be restored.

For long-term control of normal eye pressure.

Until the excess pressure is reduced.

For long-term control of pain and swelling.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Open-angle glaucoma is a chronic eye condition that can cause irreversible damage to the optic nerve, leading to vision loss or blindness. The primary goal of treatment is to lower and control the intraocular pressure (IOP) to prevent further damage. Eye drops are often prescribed to reduce the IOP and are typically used for long-term control of normal eye pressure, even if the pressure has been reduced to a safe level.

Options a, c, and d are incorrect because they do not reﬂect the long-term management of open-angle glaucoma.

While reducing excess pressure may be a goal of treatment, it is not a guarantee that the eye drops will be discontinued once the pressure is normalized.

Likewise, restoring a smaller angle or managing pain and swelling may be secondary goals but are not the primary purpose of using eye drops in open-angle glaucoma

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Metoclopramide is a medication used to treat nausea and vomiting, including those caused by chemotherapy. However, it has a potential adverse eﬀect of causing extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), which are involuntary movements of the body, such as muscle spasms, twitching, or restlessness. These symptoms can be distressing for patients and can interfere with their quality of life. EPS can be a sign of tardive dyskinesia, a serious and irreversible neurological disorder.

Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to monitor the client for any signs of EPS and report them immediately to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Unusual irritability, diarrhea, and nausea are also potential adverse eﬀects of metoclopramide, but they are not as concerning as EPS.

A. Advise the client to stop taking the drug and contact the healthcare provider. B. Ask the client to describe her dietary intake history for the last several days. C. Instruct the to increase her intake of saturated fats over the next week. D. Obtain a stool to evaluate occult blood and fat content. E. Obtain a stool to evaluate occult blood and fat content.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Orlistat works by inhibiting the absorption of dietary fat in the intestines. The side eﬀects of faty stools and ﬂatus can be managed by reducing the intake of dietary fat. The nurse should ask the client to describe her dietary intake history for the last several days to determine if she has been consuming a diet high in fat.

Based on this information, the nurse can provide appropriate dietary advice to help manage these side eﬀects.

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A client with open-angle glaucoma asks the nurse how long the prescribed eye drops will need to be used. Which response made by the nurse is accurate?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client with chemotherapy induced nausea receives a prescription for metoclopramide. Which adverse eﬀect is most important for the nurse to report?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

After taking orlistat for one week, a female client tells the home health nurse that she is experiencing increasingly frequent faty stools and ﬂatus. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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