A client with open-angle glaucoma asks the nurse how long the prescribed eye drops will need to be used. Which response made by the nurse is accurate?
Until a smaller angle can be restored.
For long-term control of normal eye pressure.
Until the excess pressure is reduced.
For long-term control of pain and swelling.
The Correct Answer is B
Open-angle glaucoma is a chronic eye condition that can cause irreversible damage to the optic nerve, leading to vision loss or blindness. The primary goal of treatment is to lower and control the intraocular pressure (IOP) to prevent further damage. Eye drops are often prescribed to reduce the IOP and are typically used for long-term control of normal eye pressure, even if the pressure has been reduced to a safe level.
Options a, c, and d are incorrect because they do not reflect the long-term management of open-angle glaucoma.
While reducing excess pressure may be a goal of treatment, it is not a guarantee that the eye drops will be discontinued once the pressure is normalized.
Likewise, restoring a smaller angle or managing pain and swelling may be secondary goals but are not the primary purpose of using eye drops in open-angle glaucoma
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Metoclopramide is a medication used to treat nausea and vomiting, including those caused by chemotherapy. However, it has a potential adverse effect of causing extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), which are involuntary movements of the body, such as muscle spasms, twitching, or restlessness. These symptoms can be distressing for patients and can interfere with their quality of life. EPS can be a sign of tardive dyskinesia, a serious and irreversible neurological disorder.
Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to monitor the client for any signs of EPS and report them immediately to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Unusual irritability, diarrhea, and nausea are also potential adverse effects of metoclopramide, but they are not as concerning as EPS.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that is given once daily at the same time every day via subcutaneous injection. Therefore, it is essential to teach the client self-injection skills for daily subcutaneous administration to ensure proper administration of insulin.
Option b is incorrect because insulin glargine is typically given at the same dose every day, not based on before meal blood sugar readings.
Option c is incorrect because insulin glargine is not used for the treatment of severe hypoglycemia, and it should not be administered by someone who is not trained to do so.
Option d is incorrect because ketoacidosis is a serious complication of diabetes mellitus that requires urgent medical atention, and increasing medication dosage is not appropriate for this condition.
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