A client with open-angle glaucoma asks the nurse how long the prescribed eye drops will need to be used. Which response made by the nurse is accurate?
Until a smaller angle can be restored.
For long-term control of normal eye pressure.
Until the excess pressure is reduced.
For long-term control of pain and swelling.
The Correct Answer is B
Open-angle glaucoma is a chronic eye condition that can cause irreversible damage to the optic nerve, leading to vision loss or blindness. The primary goal of treatment is to lower and control the intraocular pressure (IOP) to prevent further damage. Eye drops are often prescribed to reduce the IOP and are typically used for long-term control of normal eye pressure, even if the pressure has been reduced to a safe level.
Options a, c, and d are incorrect because they do not reflect the long-term management of open-angle glaucoma.
While reducing excess pressure may be a goal of treatment, it is not a guarantee that the eye drops will be discontinued once the pressure is normalized.
Likewise, restoring a smaller angle or managing pain and swelling may be secondary goals but are not the primary purpose of using eye drops in open-angle glaucoma
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Nitrofurantoin is an antibiotic commonly used to treat urinary tract infections. One of the adverse effects of nitrofurantoin is diarrhea, which may be severe and watery. Therefore, it is important for the home care nurse to inform the client that the diarrhea may be a side effect of the medication and requires further evaluation. The nurse should instruct the client to stop taking the medication and contact their healthcare provider for further assessment and treatment. The nurse should also assess the client's fluid and electrolyte status and monitor for signs of dehydration.
Option a is important to consider, but it does not address the potential adverse effect of the medication.
Option c may be appropriate in some cases, but it is not the priority intervention at this time.
Option d is not necessarily true and may cause unnecessary alarm to the client.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Lactulose is a medication commonly used in the management of hepatic encephalopathy. It works by reducing the absorption of ammonia in the gut, which is a toxin that can accumulate in the blood in patients with liver dysfunction.
Monitoring serum electrolytes and ammonia levels can help the nurse evaluate the effectiveness of lactulose therapy. Elevated ammonia levels can indicate that the medication is not effectively reducing ammonia absorption and may require adjustment in dose or frequency. Additionally, monitoring electrolyte levels can help detect any imbalances that may occur because of lactulose therapy.
Fingerstick glucose levels (option A) are not relevant to evaluating the therapeutic response of lactulose in hepatic encephalopathy.
Stool color and character (option C) may be monitored to assess the side effects of lactulose, such as diarrhea, but are not the best assessments to evaluate therapeutic response.
Serum hepatic enzymes (option D) may be useful in assessing the severity of liver disease but are not the best assessment to evaluate the therapeutic response of lactulose in hepatic encephalopathy.
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