A client with open-angle glaucoma asks the nurse how long the prescribed eye drops will need to be used. Which response made by the nurse is accurate?
Until a smaller angle can be restored.
For long-term control of normal eye pressure.
Until the excess pressure is reduced.
For long-term control of pain and swelling.
The Correct Answer is B
Open-angle glaucoma is a chronic eye condition that can cause irreversible damage to the optic nerve, leading to vision loss or blindness. The primary goal of treatment is to lower and control the intraocular pressure (IOP) to prevent further damage. Eye drops are often prescribed to reduce the IOP and are typically used for long-term control of normal eye pressure, even if the pressure has been reduced to a safe level.
Options a, c, and d are incorrect because they do not reflect the long-term management of open-angle glaucoma.
While reducing excess pressure may be a goal of treatment, it is not a guarantee that the eye drops will be discontinued once the pressure is normalized.
Likewise, restoring a smaller angle or managing pain and swelling may be secondary goals but are not the primary purpose of using eye drops in open-angle glaucoma
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The client is experiencing syncope (fainting) due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40 mm Hg, which is too low. This suggests that the client's blood pressure medications are reducing their blood pressure too much, resulting in hypotension. The rationale for the nurse's decision to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medications is to prevent further hypotension and allow the client's blood pressure to stabilize at a safer level.
Option a is incorrect because diuresis (increased urine output) is not a likely cause of the client's hypotension.
Option b is incorrect because the client's symptoms suggest hypotension due to reduced blood pressure, rather than drug toxicity.
Option c is incorrect because the antagonistic interaction among blood pressure medications would result in reduced effectiveness but would not necessarily cause hypotension.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The client's symptoms suggest liver dysfunction, which is a known adverse effect of albendazole. Albendazole is primarily metabolized in the liver, and its use can cause liver damage in some cases. Therefore, it is essential to review liver function test results to assess the severity of liver damage and to determine if the medication should be discontinued or the dosage should be adjusted.
The renal function panel (a) measures the levels of various substances, such as creatinine and blood urea nitrogen, in the blood to assess kidney function.
The thyroid function test (b) evaluates the levels of thyroid hormones in the blood to diagnose thyroid disorders.
The basic metabolic panel (c) includes several tests that assess the levels of electrolytes, glucose, and other substances in the blood to evaluate metabolic function. However, these lab tests are not directly related to the symptoms and adverse effects associated with albendazole use
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