A female client with a history of peptic ulcer disease receives a prescription for misoprostol. Which information provided by the client indicates to the nurse a need for further teaching?
Begin therapy 1 week before the next normal menstrual cycle.
Use condoms and a backup method of birth control.
Call the healthcare provider immediately if there is a chance of conception.
Ensure a negative pregnancy test two weeks before therapy.
The Correct Answer is A
Misoprostol should not be used during pregnancy as it can cause harm to the fetus. Women of childbearing potential should use effective contraception while taking misoprostol. If there is a chance of conception, the healthcare provider should be contacted immediately. A negative pregnancy test is required before starting therapy with misoprostol .
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Administers onto the fleshy outer thigh: This is the recommended site for epinephrine auto-injection because it allows for quick absorption into the bloodstream. The outer thigh is a large muscle area, which helps in the rapid distribution of the medication.
B. Inserts the injection pen through clothing: It is generally acceptable to inject epinephrine through clothing in an emergency situation. This practice ensures that there is no delay in administering the life-saving medication, which is crucial during an anaphylactic reaction.
C. Cleanses the injection pen for re-use: Epinephrine auto-injectors are designed for single use only. Reusing the pen can lead to contamination and reduced effectiveness of the medication. It is important to dispose of the used injector properly and obtain a new one for future use.
D. Holds the pen in place after injection: Holding the pen in place for a few seconds after injection ensures that the full dose of medication is delivered. This practice helps in maximizing the effectiveness of the treatment during an anaphylactic emergency.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The client is experiencing syncope (fainting) due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40 mm Hg, which is too low. This suggests that the client's blood pressure medications are reducing their blood pressure too much, resulting in hypotension. The rationale for the nurse's decision to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medications is to prevent further hypotension and allow the client's blood pressure to stabilize at a safer level.
Option a is incorrect because diuresis (increased urine output) is not a likely cause of the client's hypotension.
Option b is incorrect because the client's symptoms suggest hypotension due to reduced blood pressure, rather than drug toxicity.
Option c is incorrect because the antagonistic interaction among blood pressure medications would result in reduced effectiveness but would not necessarily cause hypotension.
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