A client who receives multiple antihypertensive multiple medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40 mm Hg. Which is the rationale for the nurse’s decision to hold the client’s scheduled antihypertensive medications?

Increased urinary clearance of the multiple medications has produced diuresis and lowered blood pressure.

The synergetic eﬀect of the multiple medication has resulted in drug toxicity and resulting hypotension.

The antagonistic interaction among the various blood pressure medications has reduced their eﬀectiveness.

The additive eﬀect of multiple medications has caused the blood pressure to drop too low.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

The client is experiencing syncope (fainting) due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40 mm Hg, which is too low. This suggests that the client's blood pressure medications are reducing their blood pressure too much, resulting in hypotension. The rationale for the nurse's decision to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medications is to prevent further hypotension and allow the client's blood pressure to stabilize at a safer level.

Option a is incorrect because diuresis (increased urine output) is not a likely cause of the client's hypotension.

Option b is incorrect because the client's symptoms suggest hypotension due to reduced blood pressure, rather than drug toxicity.

Option c is incorrect because the antagonistic interaction among blood pressure medications would result in reduced eﬀectiveness but would not necessarily cause hypotension.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Lactulose is a medication commonly used in the management of hepatic encephalopathy. It works by reducing the absorption of ammonia in the gut, which is a toxin that can accumulate in the blood in patients with liver dysfunction.

Monitoring serum electrolytes and ammonia levels can help the nurse evaluate the eﬀectiveness of lactulose therapy. Elevated ammonia levels can indicate that the medication is not eﬀectively reducing ammonia absorption and may require adjustment in dose or frequency. Additionally, monitoring electrolyte levels can help detect any imbalances that may occur because of lactulose therapy.

Fingerstick glucose levels (option A) are not relevant to evaluating the therapeutic response of lactulose in hepatic encephalopathy.

Stool color and character (option C) may be monitored to assess the side eﬀects of lactulose, such as diarrhea, but are not the best assessments to evaluate therapeutic response.

Serum hepatic enzymes (option D) may be useful in assessing the severity of liver disease but are not the best assessment to evaluate the therapeutic response of lactulose in hepatic encephalopathy.

A. Teach the client self-injection skills for daily subcutaneous administration. B. Demonstrate how to select dose based on before meal blood sugar readings. C. Explain to the family how to inject this medication for severe hypoglycemia. D. Provide information on increasing medication dosage if ketoacidosis occurs.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that is given once daily at the same time every day via subcutaneous injection. Therefore, it is essential to teach the client self-injection skills for daily subcutaneous administration to ensure proper administration of insulin.

Option b is incorrect because insulin glargine is typically given at the same dose every day, not based on before meal blood sugar readings.

Option c is incorrect because insulin glargine is not used for the treatment of severe hypoglycemia, and it should not be administered by someone who is not trained to do so.

Option d is incorrect because ketoacidosis is a serious complication of diabetes mellitus that requires urgent medical atention, and increasing medication dosage is not appropriate for this condition.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

A client who receives multiple antihypertensive multiple medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40 mm Hg. Which is the rationale for the nurse’s decision to hold the client’s scheduled antihypertensive medications?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client with hepatic encephalopathy is receiving lactulose. Which assessment provides the nurse with the nest information to evaluate the client’s therapeutic response to the drug?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse is planning to discharge teaching for a client with diabetes mellitus who has a new prescription for insulin glargine. Which action should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A client with muscle spasticity receives a prescription for baclofen. Which information provided by the client requires additional instruction by the nurse?

Prior to administering the evening dose of carbamazepine, the nurse noted that the client’s morning carbamazepine level was 8.4 mg/L. Which action should the nurse take?

The nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for a clientwho is taking ciproﬂoxacin hydrochloride tablets which were prescribed because of a suspected anthrax exposure. Which instructions should be included in the teaching plan? (Select all that apply.)

Before administering a newly prescribed dose of terbinafine HCL to a client with a fungal toenail infection, which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to address?

Prior to administering oral doses of calcitriol and calcium carbonate to a client with hypoparathyroidism, the nurse notes that the total level of calcium is 14 mg/dL (3.5 mmol/L). Which action should the nurse implement?

Before administering initial dose of sumatriptan succinate to a client with a migraine headache, it is most to determine if the client’s history includes which problem?

A client taking atorvastatin becomes an increased serum creatine phosphokinase (CK) level. The nurse should assess the client for the onset of which problem?