A client who receives multiple antihypertensive multiple medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40 mm Hg. Which is the rationale for the nurse’s decision to hold the client’s scheduled antihypertensive medications?

Increased urinary clearance of the multiple medications has produced diuresis and lowered blood pressure.

The synergetic eﬀect of the multiple medication has resulted in drug toxicity and resulting hypotension.

The antagonistic interaction among the various blood pressure medications has reduced their eﬀectiveness.

The additive eﬀect of multiple medications has caused the blood pressure to drop too low.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

The client is experiencing syncope (fainting) due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40 mm Hg, which is too low. This suggests that the client's blood pressure medications are reducing their blood pressure too much, resulting in hypotension. The rationale for the nurse's decision to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medications is to prevent further hypotension and allow the client's blood pressure to stabilize at a safer level.

Option a is incorrect because diuresis (increased urine output) is not a likely cause of the client's hypotension.

Option b is incorrect because the client's symptoms suggest hypotension due to reduced blood pressure, rather than drug toxicity.

Option c is incorrect because the antagonistic interaction among blood pressure medications would result in reduced eﬀectiveness but would not necessarily cause hypotension.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Ipratropium is a medication used to treat chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)1. When using an ipratropium inhaler for the first time or if it has not been used for a while, it is important to prime the inhaler by spraying it into the air away from your face1. However, the inhaler only needs to be primed with 2 sprays, not 71. If the client primes the inhaler with 7 pumps, it indicates that additional teaching is needed.

A. A coronary artery bypass procedure was performed in 1995. B. Suﬀered with depression following death of spouse in 1999. C. Digoxin and furosemide daily since 1996. D. A Colonoscopy was performed for routine screening six months ago.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Digoxin is a medication commonly used to treat heart failure by strengthening the heart's contractions and slowing down the heart rate. However, it can also cause nausea, vomiting, and loss of appetite, especially when levels in the body are too high. Furosemide is a diuretic medication that helps to remove excess ﬂuid from the body, which is often necessary in heart failure. However, it can also cause electrolyte imbalances, such as low potassium levels, which can contribute to nausea and vomiting.

Therefore, in a client with heart failure who is experiencing these symptoms, it is important to assess their medication regimen, including dosages and serum levels, to ensure that they are not experiencing medication side eﬀects or toxicity.

Adjustments may need to be made to the client's medication regimen to manage symptoms eﬀectively and prevent further complications. Options (a), (b), and (d) do not have as direct a correlation to the current symptoms and would not have the same level of significance when planning care for this client.

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A client who receives multiple antihypertensive multiple medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40 mm Hg. Which is the rationale for the nurse’s decision to hold the client’s scheduled antihypertensive medications?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receives a new prescription for an ipratropium inhaler. Which action indicates to the nurse that additional teaching is needed?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

An elderly client with heart failure comet to the emergency room because of nausea, vomiting, and anorexia. Based on the client’s signs and symptoms, which data from the medical history has the most significance when planning this client’s care?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client with heart failure (HF) develops hyperaldosteronism and spironolactone is prescribed. Which instruction should the nurse include in this patient’s plan of care?

Which nursing action had the highest priority when administering a dose of codeine with acetaminophen to a client?

After taking orlistat for one week, a female client tells the home health nurse that she is experiencing increasingly frequent faty stools and ﬂatus. Which action should the nurse take?

A client with psychosis who is receiving an antipsychotic medication is continuously rubbing the back of the neck. Which nursing intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

A client receives a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which statement made by client indicates to the nurse that the education was eﬀective?

The nurse is planning to discharge teaching for a client with diabetes mellitus who has a new prescription for insulin glargine. Which action should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

A client who receives multiple antihypertensive multiple medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40 mm Hg. Which is the rationale for the nurse’s decision to hold the client’s scheduled antihypertensive medications?

The home health nurse observes a client self-administering an epinephrine injection using an auto-injector pen. Which client action requires intervention by the nurse?