The nurse is caring for a client who is taking diclofenac, an NSAID drug for rheumatoid arthritis. During a clinic visit, the client appears pale and reports increasing fatigue. Which of the client’s serum laboratory values is most important for the nurse to review?

Glucose

Total protein

Sodium

Hemoglobin

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Diclofenac, like other NSAIDs, can cause gastrointestinal irritation and bleeding. The client’s symptoms of pallor and fatigue may indicate anemia due to blood loss. Reviewing the client’s hemoglobin level would help the nurse determine if the client is experiencing anemia and if further evaluation and intervention are needed.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Lactulose is a medication commonly used in the management of hepatic encephalopathy. It works by reducing the absorption of ammonia in the gut, which is a toxin that can accumulate in the blood in patients with liver dysfunction.

Monitoring serum electrolytes and ammonia levels can help the nurse evaluate the eﬀectiveness of lactulose therapy. Elevated ammonia levels can indicate that the medication is not eﬀectively reducing ammonia absorption and may require adjustment in dose or frequency. Additionally, monitoring electrolyte levels can help detect any imbalances that may occur because of lactulose therapy.

Fingerstick glucose levels (option A) are not relevant to evaluating the therapeutic response of lactulose in hepatic encephalopathy.

Stool color and character (option C) may be monitored to assess the side eﬀects of lactulose, such as diarrhea, but are not the best assessments to evaluate therapeutic response.

Serum hepatic enzymes (option D) may be useful in assessing the severity of liver disease but are not the best assessment to evaluate the therapeutic response of lactulose in hepatic encephalopathy.

A. Until a smaller angle can be restored. B. For long-term control of normal eye pressure. C. Until the excess pressure is reduced. D. For long-term control of pain and swelling.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Open-angle glaucoma is a chronic eye condition that can cause irreversible damage to the optic nerve, leading to vision loss or blindness. The primary goal of treatment is to lower and control the intraocular pressure (IOP) to prevent further damage. Eye drops are often prescribed to reduce the IOP and are typically used for long-term control of normal eye pressure, even if the pressure has been reduced to a safe level.

Options a, c, and d are incorrect because they do not reﬂect the long-term management of open-angle glaucoma.

While reducing excess pressure may be a goal of treatment, it is not a guarantee that the eye drops will be discontinued once the pressure is normalized.

Likewise, restoring a smaller angle or managing pain and swelling may be secondary goals but are not the primary purpose of using eye drops in open-angle glaucoma

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The nurse is caring for a client who is taking diclofenac, an NSAID drug for rheumatoid arthritis. During a clinic visit, the client appears pale and reports increasing fatigue. Which of the client’s serum laboratory values is most important for the nurse to review?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client with hepatic encephalopathy is receiving lactulose. Which assessment provides the nurse with the nest information to evaluate the client’s therapeutic response to the drug?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client with open-angle glaucoma asks the nurse how long the prescribed eye drops will need to be used. Which response made by the nurse is accurate?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Before administering a newly prescribed dose of terbinafine HCL to a client with a fungal toenail infection, which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to address?

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A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receives a new prescription for an ipratropium inhaler. Which action indicates to the nurse that additional teaching is needed?

A client with benign prostatic receives a new prescription of tamsulosin. Which intervention should the nurse use to monitor an adverse reaction?

When caring for a client with diabetes insipidus who is receiving antidiuretic hormone intranasally, which serum lab test is most important for the nurse to monitor?

The nurse is planning care for a patient with major depression who is receiving a new prescription for duloxetine. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

The nurse is planning to discharge teaching for a client with diabetes mellitus who has a new prescription for insulin glargine. Which action should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?