The charge nurse is planning for the shift and has a registered nurse (RN) and a practical nurse (PN) on the team. Which client should the charge nurse assign to the RN?
An adolescent with multiple contusions due to a fall that occurred 2 days ago.
A 75-year-old client with renal calculi who requires urine straining.
A 30-year-old depressed client who admits to suicide ideation.
A 64-year-old client who had a total hip replacement the previous day.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A: An adolescent with multiple contusions due to a fall that occurred 2 days ago is not a client that the charge nurse should assign to the RN, as this is a stable and low-acuity client who can be safely cared for by the PN. This is a distractor choice.
Choice B: A 75-year-old client with renal calculi who requires urine straining is not a client that the charge nurse should assign to the RN, as this is a routine and non-complex task that can be performed by the PN. This is another distractor choice.
Choice C: A 30-year-old depressed client who admits to suicide ideation is a client that the charge nurse should assign to the RN, as this is an unstable and high-risk client who requires close monitoring, assessment, and intervention by the RN. Therefore, this is the correct choice.
Choice D: A 64-year-old client who had a total hip replacement the previous day is not a client that the charge nurse should assign to the RN, as this is a postoperative and moderate-acuity client who can be managed by the PN under the supervision of the RN. This is another distractor choice.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice B reason: Reviewing the hemoglobin to determine hemorrhage is an important action, but not the first one. The nurse should first identify and correct the cause of bleeding, such as bladder distension or uterine atony, before checking for blood loss and anemia.
Choice C reason: Massaging the uterus to decrease atony is not indicated in this case, because the uterus is already firm. Massaging a firm uterus can cause overstimulation and pain.
Choice D reason: Increasing intravenous infusion is not the first action, because it may worsen bleeding by increasing blood pressure and diluting clotting factors. The nurse should first assess and manage bleeding before administering fluids or blood products as prescribed.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A: Notifying the emergency response team of the client's seizure is not a necessary action for the nurse, as the seizure has already stopped and there is no immediate threat to the client's life. This is a distractor choice.
Choice B: Keeping orienting the client to time and place until he is less confused is an appropriate action for the nurse, as this can help restore the client's cognitive function and reduce his anxiety after a seizure. Therefore, this is the correct choice.
Choice C: Explaining the postictal state that usually follows seizures is not a priority action for the nurse, as this can be done later when the client is more alert and receptive. This is another distractor choice.
Choice D: Asking the wife to wait outside the room until the nurse can talk with her is not a considerate action for the nurse, as this can increase her stress and worry about her husband's condition. This is a contraindicated choice.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today