Two days after surgical fixation of a fractured femur, a client suddenly reports chest pain and difficulty in breathing. The nurse suspects the client had a pulmonary embolus. Which action should the nurse take first?
Notify the healthcare provider.
Prepare a continuous heparin infusion per protocol.
Provide supplemental oxygen.
Bring the emergency crash cart to the bedside.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Notifying the healthcare provider is an important action, but not the first one. The nurse should prioritize interventions that address the client's immediate needs, such as oxygenation and circulation.
Choice B reason: Preparing a continuous heparin infusion per protocol is an appropriate action for preventing further clot formation and reducing the risk of recurrent pulmonary embolism, but it is not the first action. The nurse should first stabilize the client's condition before administering anticoagulant therapy.
Choice D reason: Bringing the emergency crash cart to the bedside is a prudent action, but not the first one. The nurse should prepare for possible cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) in case of cardiac arrest, but should first attempt to prevent it by providing oxygen and other supportive measures.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A: Taking metformin with the morning and evening meal is a correct statement for the nurse to include, as this can improve the absorption and effectiveness of metformin and reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Therefore, this is a correct choice.
Choice B: Using sliding scale insulin for frequent blood glucose elevations is not a correct statement for the nurse to include, as this is not recommended for clients with type 2 DM who are taking metformin. This can cause hypoglycemia and complicate the management of blood glucose levels. This is an incorrect choice.
Choice C: Recognizing signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia is a correct statement for the nurse to include, as this can help the client identify and treat low blood glucose levels, which can occur with metformin use or other factors such as exercise, fasting, or alcohol intake. Therefore, this is another correct choice.
Choice D: Reporting persistent polyuria to the health care provider is a correct statement for the nurse to include, as this can indicate poor glycemic control or a complication of DM such as diabetic ketoacidosis or nephropathy. Therefore, this is another correct choice.
Choice E: Taking an additional dose for signs of hyperglycemia is not a correct statement for the nurse to include, as this can cause overdose or toxicity of metformin, which can lead to lactic acidosis and renal failure. This is another incorrect choice.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Marking an outline of the "olive-shaped" mass in the right epigastric area is not a priority nursing action. The mass is caused by hypertrophy of the pyloric sphincter, which obstructs gastric emptying and causes projectile vomiting. The mass may not be palpable in all cases.
Choice B reason: Instructing parents regarding care of the incisional area is a post-operative nursing action, not a pre-operative one. The parents will need to learn how to keep the incision clean and dry, monitor for signs of infection, and administer pain medication as prescribed.
Choice C reason: Monitoring amount of intake and infant's response to feedings is important, but not the highest priority. The infant may have difficulty feeding due to nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain.
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