Two days after surgical fixation of a fractured femur, a client suddenly reports chest pain and difficulty in breathing. The nurse suspects the client had a pulmonary embolus. Which action should the nurse take first?
Notify the healthcare provider.
Prepare a continuous heparin infusion per protocol.
Provide supplemental oxygen.
Bring the emergency crash cart to the bedside.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Notifying the healthcare provider is an important action, but not the first one. The nurse should prioritize interventions that address the client's immediate needs, such as oxygenation and circulation.
Choice B reason: Preparing a continuous heparin infusion per protocol is an appropriate action for preventing further clot formation and reducing the risk of recurrent pulmonary embolism, but it is not the first action. The nurse should first stabilize the client's condition before administering anticoagulant therapy.
Choice D reason: Bringing the emergency crash cart to the bedside is a prudent action, but not the first one. The nurse should prepare for possible cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) in case of cardiac arrest, but should first attempt to prevent it by providing oxygen and other supportive measures.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A is correct because a distended bladder can displace the uterus and prevent it from contracting properly, leading to increased bleeding and risk of infection. The nurse should check for a distended bladder and assist the client to empty it if needed.
Choice B is incorrect because reviewing the hemoglobin is not a priority action. The hemoglobin may not reflect the current blood loss and may be done later.
Choice C is incorrect because massaging the uterus is not necessary if it is firm. Massaging a firm uterus can cause overstimulation and pain.
Choice D is incorrect because increasing intravenous infusion is not a priority action. The client may not need additional fluids if the bleeding is moderate and the vital signs are stable.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice B is correct because the client with antisocial behavior is at risk of being harmed by other clients or harming others. The nurse should intervene immediately to prevent violence and ensure safety.
Choice A is incorrect because the client with anorexia nervosa who is refusing to eat the evening snack is not in immediate danger. The nurse should monitor the client's nutritional status and weight, but this can be done later.
Choice C is incorrect because the client with bipolar disorder who is pacing around the lobby is not in immediate danger. The nurse should assess the client's mood and energy level, but this can be done later.
Choice D is incorrect because the client with major depression who refuses to participate in group is not in immediate danger. The nurse should encourage the client to join the group, but this can be done later.
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