A 46-year-old male client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) 24 hours ago comes to the nurse's station fully dressed and wanting to go home. He tells the nurse that he is feeling much better at this time. Based on this behavior, which client problem should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Ineffective coping related to denial
Emotional conflict due to stress
Deficient knowledge of MI lifestyle changes
Anxiety related to treatment plan
The Correct Answer is A
Choice B reason: Emotional conflict due to stress is not a specific problem for a client who had an MI 24 hours ago and wants to go home despite his condition. Emotional conflict is a state of having mixed or contradictory feelings about something or someone, such as family, work, or self. Stress is a response to any physical, psychological, or environmental demand that exceeds one's coping resources. The nurse should assess the client's sources of stress and conflict and help him manage them.
Choice C reason: Deficient knowledge of MI lifestyle changes is not a primary problem for a client who had an MI 24 hours ago and wants to go home despite his condition. Deficient knowledge is a state of lacking information or understanding about something, such as disease process, treatment options, or self-care measures. Lifestyle changes are modifications in one's habits or behaviors that promote health and well-being, such as diet, exercise, smoking cessation, or stress management. The nurse should assess the client's learning needs and readiness and provide appropriate education.
Choice D reason: Anxiety related to treatment plan is not an evident problem for a client who had an MI 24 hours ago and wants to go home despite his condition. Anxiety is a feeling of apprehension, worry, or fear that interferes with one's normal functioning or well-being. Treatment plan is a set of goals, interventions, and outcomes that guide the care of a client with a specific health problem, such as MI. The nurse should assess the client's level of anxiety and provide information and reassurance about his treatment plan.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice C is correct because pushing the undiluted Dextrose slowly through the currently infusing IV is the best way to administer the medication for a client with insulin shock. Insulin shock is a condition in which the blood glucose level drops too low due to excess insulin or insufficient food intake. This can cause symptoms such as confusion, sweating, tremors, or loss of consciousness. The nurse should administer 50% Dextrose IV as a bolus injection to raise the blood glucose level quickly and prevent brain damage.
Choice A is incorrect because asking the pharmacist to add the Dextrose to a TPN solution is not appropriate for a client with insulin shock. TPN stands for total parenteral nutrition, which is a type of intravenous feeding that provides all the nutrients needed by the body. TPN solutions contain dextrose, amino acids, lipids, vitamins, minerals, and electrolytes in specific concentrations and ratios. Adding extra dextrose to a TPN solution can alter its composition and cause complications such as hyperglycemia or fluid overload.
Choice B is incorrect because mixing the Dextrose in a 50 mL piggyback for a total volume of 100 mL is not effective for a client with insulin shock. A piggyback is a type of intravenous infusion that delivers medication through a secondary tubing attached to the primary tubing of another solution. Mixing the Dextrose in a piggyback can dilute its concentration and reduce its potency. It can also delay its delivery and onset of action.
Choice D is incorrect because diluting the Dextrose in one liter of 0.9% Normal Saline solution is not safe for a client with insulin shock. Normal Saline is a type of intravenous fluid that contains sodium chloride in isotonic concentration. Diluting the Dextrose in one liter of Normal Saline can lower its concentration and increase its volume significantly. This can cause complications such as hypoglycemia or fluid overload.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A: Increasing oral fluids may help with hydration, but it will not reduce skin flushing caused by lisinopril. Lisinopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE. inhibitor that dilates blood vessels and lowers blood pressure. Flushing occurs due to increased blood flow to the skin.
Choice B: Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that relaxes smooth muscle in blood vessels and reduces chest pain caused by angina. It is not indicated for skin flushing caused by lisinopril. Moreover, nitroglycerin can lower blood pressure further and cause hypotension, headache, dizziness, and fainting.
Choice C: Going to an emergency department is not necessary for skin flushing caused by lisinopril. Flushing is not a sign of an allergic reaction or anaphylaxis, which would require immediate medical attention. Flushing is also not a symptom of a heart attack or stroke, which would present with other signs such as chest pain, shortness of breath, arm numbness, or slurred speech.
Choice D: Reassuring the client that facial flushing is a common side effect of lisinopril is the best action for the nurse to take. Flushing is not harmful or dangerous, and it usually subsides within a few hours. The nurse should explain the mechanism of action of lisinopril and its benefits for lowering blood pressure and preventing angina. The nurse should also advise the client to monitor his blood pressure regularly and report any signs of hypotension, such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or fainting.
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