A client who is hypotensive is receiving dopamine, an adrenergic agonist, IV at the rate of 8 mcg/kg/min. Which intervention should the nurse implement while administering this medication?
Assess pupillary response to light hourly.
Initiate seizure precautions.
Measure urinary output every hour.
Monitor serum potassium frequently.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A: Assessing pupillary response to light hourly is not related to dopamine administration. Dopamine does not affect the pupils or the cranial nerves that control them.
Choice B: Initiating seizure precautions is not necessary for a client receiving dopamine. Dopamine does not lower the seizure threshold or cause convulsions.
Choice C: Measuring urinary output every hour is an important intervention for a client receiving dopamine. Dopamine increases blood pressure and cardiac output, which improves renal perfusion and urine production. Urinary output is an indicator of the effectiveness of dopamine therapy and renal function.
Choice D: Monitoring serum potassium frequently is not directly related to dopamine administration. Dopamine does not affect potassium levels or cause hyperkalemia or hypokalemia. However, potassium levels may be affected by other factors such as fluid balance, renal function, and medications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A: An adolescent with multiple contusions due to a fall that occurred 2 days ago is not a client that the charge nurse should assign to the RN, as this is a stable and low-acuity client who can be safely cared for by the PN. This is a distractor choice.
Choice B: A 75-year-old client with renal calculi who requires urine straining is not a client that the charge nurse should assign to the RN, as this is a routine and non-complex task that can be performed by the PN. This is another distractor choice.
Choice C: A 30-year-old depressed client who admits to suicide ideation is a client that the charge nurse should assign to the RN, as this is an unstable and high-risk client who requires close monitoring, assessment, and intervention by the RN. Therefore, this is the correct choice.
Choice D: A 64-year-old client who had a total hip replacement the previous day is not a client that the charge nurse should assign to the RN, as this is a postoperative and moderate-acuity client who can be managed by the PN under the supervision of the RN. This is another distractor choice.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A: Taking metformin with the morning and evening meal is a correct statement for the nurse to include, as this can improve the absorption and effectiveness of metformin and reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Therefore, this is a correct choice.
Choice B: Using sliding scale insulin for frequent blood glucose elevations is not a correct statement for the nurse to include, as this is not recommended for clients with type 2 DM who are taking metformin. This can cause hypoglycemia and complicate the management of blood glucose levels. This is an incorrect choice.
Choice C: Recognizing signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia is a correct statement for the nurse to include, as this can help the client identify and treat low blood glucose levels, which can occur with metformin use or other factors such as exercise, fasting, or alcohol intake. Therefore, this is another correct choice.
Choice D: Reporting persistent polyuria to the health care provider is a correct statement for the nurse to include, as this can indicate poor glycemic control or a complication of DM such as diabetic ketoacidosis or nephropathy. Therefore, this is another correct choice.
Choice E: Taking an additional dose for signs of hyperglycemia is not a correct statement for the nurse to include, as this can cause overdose or toxicity of metformin, which can lead to lactic acidosis and renal failure. This is another incorrect choice.
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